1
Q
40,2001,”The term National Income represents:”,(a) gross national product at market prices minus depreciation,(b) gross national product at market prices minus depreciation plus net factor income from abroad,(c) gross national product at market prices minus depreciation and indirect taxes plus subsidies,(d) gross national product at market prices minus net factor income from abroad
A
40,(c) The option (c) gross national product at market price minus depreciation minus indirect tax plus subsidies.
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2
Q
41,2001,”Assertion (A) : Ceiling on foreign exchange for a host of current account transaction heads was lowered in the year 2000. Reason (R) : There was a fall in foreign currency assets also.”,(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A,(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A,(c) A is true but R is false,(d) A is false but R is true
A
41,(c) A is true but R is false.
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3
Q
42,2001,”The prices at which the government purchases food grains for maintaining the public distribution system and for building up buffer-stock is known as:”,(a) minimum support prices,(b) procurement prices,(c) issue prices,(d) ceiling prices
A
42,(b) Procurement price is the support price at which the government will buy whatever quantum farmers want to sell to the government in the event of private traders not buying the product. This is done to give a fair price to the farmer and to create a buffer stock of food grains to meet public distribution system requirements.
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4
Q
43,2002,”With reference to Power Sector in India, consider the following statements:
1. Rural electrification has been treated as a Basic Minimum Service under the Prime Minister’s Gramodaya Yojana
2. 2. 100 percent Foreign Direct Investment in power is allowed without upper limit
3. 3. The Union Ministry of Power has signed a Memoranda of Understanding with 14 States Which of these statements is/are correct?”,(a) 1 only,(b) 1 and 2,(c) 2 and 3,(d) 3 only
A
43,(b) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana was launched in order to achieve the objective of sustainable human development at the village level. It has 6 components viz., primary health, Primary education, rural shelter, rural drinking water, nutrition and Rural electrification. Upto 100% FDI is allowed in respect of projects relating to electricity generation, transmission and distribution, other than atomic reactor power plants.
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5
Q
44,2002,”With reference to the Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:
1. External liabilities reported in the Union Budget are based on historical exchange rates
2. 2. The continued high borrowing has kept the real interest rates high in the economy
3. 3. The upward trend in the ratio of Fiscal Deficit of GDP a recent years has an adverse effect on private investment
4. 4. Interest payments is the single largest component of the non-plan revenue expenditure of the Union Government Which of these statements are correct?”,(a) 1, 2 and 3,(b) 1 and 4,(c) 2, 3 and 4,(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A
44,(c) Public Finance in India also comes under the purview of a branch of economics which determines and assesses the policies of the Indian government stipulated in the annual finance budget. It identifies that types and consequences of tax measures and expenditure on citizens, institutions, and the entire economy. The upward trend in the ratio of Fiscal Deficit of GDP a recent years has an adverse effect on private investment. The continued high borrowing has kept the real interest rates high in the economy. Public finance identifies that types and consequences of tax measures and expenditure on citizens, institutions, and the entire economy.
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6
Q
45,2002,”Consider the following statements: Full convertibility of the rupee may mean: 1. Its free float with the international currencies 2. Its direct exchange with any other international currency at any prescribed place inside and outside the country 3. It acts just like any other international currency Which of these statements are correct?”,(a) 1 and 2,(b) 1 and 3,(c) 2 and 3,(d) 1, 2 and 3
A
45,(d) Capital account convertibility means free conversion of cross-border capital flows, implying that anybody can convert domestic currency into hard currency at the market rate and take the hard currency out of the country.
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7
Q
46,2003,”Consider the following statements: In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are: 1. levied and collected by the State Government 2. appropriated by the Union Government Which of these statements is/are correct?”,(a) Only 1,(b) Only 2,(c) Both 1 and 2,(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
46,(d) Stamp duty is a form of tax that is levied on documents. It is levied by the union or the central government and collected and appropriated by the state governments. (Entry 91 in the union list; entry 63 in the state list of Seventh Schedule of Constitution of India)
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8
Q
47,2003,”Which one among the following States has the highest female literacy rate as per the Census 2001?”,(a) Chhattisgarh,(b) Madhya Pradesh,(c) Orissa,(d) Rajasthan
A
47,(a) As per the census of 2001, Chhattisgarh has the highest female literacy of 51.85, Orissa has 50.51%, Madhya Pradesh - 50.29 and Rajasthan has 43.85%.
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9
Q
48,2004,”Which of the following is not a recommendation of the task force on direct taxes under the chairmanship of Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar in the year 2002?”,(a) Abolition of Wealth Tax,(b) Increase in the exemption limit of personal income to Rs. 1.20 lakh for widows,(c) Elimination of standard deduction,(d) Exemption from tax on dividends and capital gains from the listed equity
A
48,(b) Increase in exemption limit to Rs 1 lakh to for the general categories of taxpayers. A higher exemption limit of Rs 1.50 lakh for widows and senior citizens was one of the recommendation of the task, force on direct taxes under the chairmanship of Dr. Vijay. Kelkar in the year 2002.
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10
Q
49,2004,”As per 1991 Census, which one of the following groups of Union Territories had the highest literacy rate?”,(a) Chandigarh and Dadra & Nagar Haveli,(b) Delhi and Andaman & Nicobar Islands,(c) Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Pondichery,(d) Pondicherry and Delhi
A
49,(d) As per 1991 census, Pondicherry and Delhi had the literacy rates of 75.3 and 74.7 respectively.
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11
Q
50,2004,”Consider the following statements: As per 2001 Census 1. the two States with the lowest sex ratio are Haryana and Punjab 2. the two States with the lowest population per sq. km. of area are Meghalaya and Mizoram 3. Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and sex ratio Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”,(a) 3 only,(b) 2 and 3,(c) 1 and 2,(d) 1 and 3
A
50,(d) As per census 2001, child sex ratio in Haryana was 861, in Punjab 876 and in Sikkim 875. Hence, Haryana and Sikkim were the two states with the lowest sex ratios. The population per sq. km. of area in Arunachal Pradesh was 13, in Meghalaya was 103 and in Mizoram was 42. Hence, the two states with the lowest population per sq. km of area are Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram. Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and sex ratio.
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12
Q
51,2005,”Consider the following statements:
1. Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility (PRGF) has been established by the International Development Association (IDA) to provide further assistance to low income countries facing high level of indebtedness.
2. 2. Singapore regional Training Institute (STI) is one of the institutes that provides training in macroeconomic analysis and policy and related subject as a part of programme of the IMF institute.
3. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”,(a) 1 only,(b) 2 only,(c) Both 1 and 2,(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
51,(b) In 1999, the IMF established the Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility (PRGF) to make the objectives of poverty reduction and growth more central to lending operations in its poorest member countries.
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13
Q
52,2006,”Which one of the following statements is correct? Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBMA) concerns:”,(a) Fiscal Deficit only,(b) Revenue deficit only,(c) Both fiscal deficit and revenue deficit,(d) Neither fiscal deficit nor revenue deficit
A
52,(c) Fiscal responsibility and budget management act aims to bring down Fiscal deficit to 3% by 2008 and the revenue deficit to zero by 2008.
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14
Q
53,2007,”Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India?”,(a) Services - Industry - Agriculture,(b) Services - Agriculture - Industry,(c) Industry - Services - Agriculture,(d) Industry - Agriculture - Services
A
53,(a) Contribution of different sectors to national income. Services – 55.1%, Industry – 26.4%, Agriculture – 18.5%
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15
Q
54,2007,”Participatory Notes (PNs) are associated with which one of the following?”,(a) Consolidated Fund of India,(b) Foreign Institutional Investors,(c) United Nations Development Programme,(d) Kyoto Protocol
A
54,(b) Participatory Notes (PNs / P-Notes) are instruments used by investors or hedge funds that are not registered with the SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) to invest in Indian securities. Participatory notes are instruments that derive their value from an underlying financial instrument such as an equity share and, hence, the word, ‘derivative instruments’. SEBI permitted FIIs to register and participate in the Indian stock market in 1992.
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16
Q
- Which of the following pairs about India’s economic
indicator and agricultural production (all in rounded figures)
are correctly matched? [2008] - GDP per capita (current prices): ` 37,000
- Rice : 180 million tons
- Wheat : 75 million tons
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
A
55,(d) Rice production was 96.69 Million tonnes in 2007-08.
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17
Q
56,2008,”Consider the following statements with reference to Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS):
1. All persons of 60 years or above belonging to the households below poverty line in rural areas are eligible.
2. 2. The Central Assistance under this Scheme is at the rate of ` 300 per month per beneficiary. Under the Scheme, States have been urged to give matching amounts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”,(a) 1 only,(b) 2 only,(c) Both 1 and 2,(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
56,(a Ministry of Rural Development of India has introduced Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS) under National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) in the year 2007. IGNOAPS also called as National Old Age Pension Scheme (NOAPS). The old age pension scheme aims to provide social protection to the eligible beneficiaries. In this article, we look at the Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme in detail.
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18
Q
57,2009,”Consider the following: 1. Fringe Benefit Tax 2. Interest Tax 3. Securities Transaction Tax Which of the above is/are Direct Tax/Taxes?”,(a) 1 only,(b) 1 and 3 only,(c) 2 and 3 only,(d) 1, 2 and 3
A
57,(d) Fringe Benefits Tax (FBT) was the tax applied to most, although not all, fringe benefits. A new tax was imposed on employers by India’s Finance Act 2005 and was introduced for the financial year commencing April 1, 2005. The Fringe Benefit Tax was abolished in the Finance Bill of 2009. Securities Transaction Tax (STT) is the tax payable on the value of taxable securities transaction. STT was introduced in India by the 2004 budget and is applicable with effect from 1st October 2004. Interest tax is imposed as a special tax on interest accrued in specified cases. The Interest Tax Act of 1974 governs the tax process associated with the imposition and collection of interest tax. The Act applies to all scheduled Banks that are required to pay tax on the chargeable interest amounts they have on their deposits. The act is no longer applicable with regard to chargeable interest accruing after 31 March 2000.
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19
Q
58,2010,”Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of deflation?”,(a) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies,(b) It is a persistent recession in both the financial and real sectors of economy,(c) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services,(d) It is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time
A
58,(c) Deflation is a decrease in the prices of goods and services. It occurs when the annual inflation rate falls below 0% which is a negative inflation rate. This is different from Disinflation which is a slow-down in the inflation rate. This is a situation when inflation declines to lower levels but prices continue to rise.
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20
Q
59,2010,”Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency?”,(a) ADR,(b) GDR,(c) SDR,(d) Both ADR and SDR
A
59,(c) ADR is an American Depositary Receipt which represents ownership in the shares of a non-US company that trades in U. S. financial markets. GDR is Global Depositary Receipt is a bank certificate issued in more than one country for shares in a foreign company. A GDR is very similar to ADR. SDR is special Drawing Rights. It is an international type of monetary reserve currency, created by the IMF in 1969. SDR can be thought as an artificial currency used by the IMF and defined as a basket of national currencies.
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21
Q
60,2010,”When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the Cash Reserve Rate, what does it mean?”,(a) The commercial banks will have less money to lend,(b) The Reserve Bank of India will have less money to lend,(c) The Union Government will have less money to lend,(d) The commercial banks will have more money to lend
A
60,(a) CRR or the Cash Reserve Ratio is that ratio of the total deposits held by a bank which it has to keep with the central bank of country.
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22
Q
61,2010,”With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only. 2. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPIIW), the WPI gives less weight to food articles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”,(a) 1 only,(b) 2 only,(c) Both 1 and 2,(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
61,(b) Alter the Abhijit Sen committee’s proposals in 2004-05, the government had approved the proposal to release or wholesale price based inflation data on a monthly basis, instead of every week. The base year was changed to 2004-05 from 1993-94. However data on primary and fuel items was continued to release on a weekly basis. Consumer Price Index food group has a weight of 39.1 percent as compared to the combined weight of 24.4 percent (food articles and Manufactured food products) in wholesale Price Index food basket.
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23
Q
62,2010,”In the context of Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
Term Most Appropriate description 1. Melt down Fall in stock prices
2. Recession Fall in growth rate
3. 3. Slow down Fall in GDP Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?”,(a) 1 only,(b) 2 and 3 only,(c) 1 and 3 only,(d) 1, 2 and 3
A
62,a Recession is negative growth rate that is fall in GDP. so 2 and 3 are interchanged answer 1 only
Learning – recession v/s depression v/s double dip recession v/s slow down, Disinflation v/s deflation
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24
Q
63,2010,”In the context of governance, consider the following: 1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows 2. Privatization of higher educational Institutions 3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy 4. Selling/offloading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India?”,(a) 1, 2 and 3,(b) 2, 3 and 4,(c) 1, 2 and 4,(d) 3 and 4 only
A
63,(d) Over the past few decades, it has been the private sector that has really driven capacity-creation in Indian higher education. Serious thinking on downsizing bureaucracy had begun in the early 1990s. A sub-group set up by the Planning Commission had suggested in 1993 that the Union government should weed out at least 2,000 senior-level positions in various ministries.
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25
Q
64,2010,”With reference to’ Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has increased by four times in the last 10 years. 2. The percentage share of Public Sector in GDP has declined in the last 10 years. Which of the statements, given above is/ are correct?”,(a) 1 only,(b) 2 only,(c) Both 1 and 2,(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
64,(b) The correct answer is (b).
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26
Q
65,2011 - I,”India is regarded as a country with “Demographic Dividend’’. This is due to”,(a) Its high population in the age group below 15 years.,(b) Its high population in the age group of 15–64 years.,(c) Its high population in the age group above 65 years.,(d) Its high total population.
A
65,(b) The demographic dividend is a rise in the rate of economic growth due to a rising share of working age people in a population. This usually occurs late in the demographic transition when the fertility rate falls and the youth dependency rate declines.
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27
Q
66,2011 - I,”Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value Added Tax” ?”,(a) It is multi-point destination-based system of taxation.,(b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production distribution chain.,(c) It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer.,(d) It is basically a subject of the central government and the state governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation.
A
66,(d) VAT, being a ‘tax on sale or purchase of goods within a State’ is a State Subject by virtue of Entry 54 of State List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. Since VAT/Sales tax is a State subject, the Central Government has been playing the role of a facilitator for successful implementation of VAT.
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28
Q
67,2011 - I,”Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories?”,(a) Empirical liberalism,(b) Existentialism,(c) Darwin’s theory of evolution,(d) Dialectical materialism
A
67,(d) Darwin’s “struggle for existence” in natural history is analogous to the class struggle in “human History”. So option (c) stands incorrect. The sketch of dialectical materialism given by Karl Marx explains that Dialectical principle is of universal application and all the development is “struggle of opposites” or “conflict of opposites”. Thus option d stands correct in this question.
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29
Q
68,2011 - I,”All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the ?”,(a) Contingency Fund of India,(b) Public Account,(c) Consolidated Fund of India,(d) Deposits and Advances Fund
A
68,(c) Under Article 266 (1) of the Constitution of India, all revenues ( example tax revenue from personal income tax, corporate income tax, customs and excise duties as well as non-tax revenue such as licence fees, dividends and profits from public sector undertakings etc.) received by the Union government as well as all loans raised by issue of treasury bills, internal and external loans and all moneys received by the Union Government in repayment of loans shall form a consolidated fund.
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30
Q
69,2011 - I,”A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to the “base effect”. What is “base effect”?”,(a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to failure of crops,(b) It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid economic growth,(c) It is the impact of the price levels of previous year on the calculation of inflation rate,(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
A
69,(c) The Base effect refers to the tendency of a small change from a low initial amount to the current amount which is translated into a large percentage and appears as large. It is usually used in context of inflation. It indicates the change in the inflation rate in the current period with respect to the base period.
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31
Q
70,2011 - I,”In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years. 2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?”,(a) 1 only,(b) 2 only,(c) Both 1 and 2,(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
70,(d) Data categories and components Units 2005-06 2006-07 2007-08 2008-09 2009-10 2010-11 GDP and Related indicators GDP (Current market Prices) ` crore 3692485 4293672 4986426 5582623PE 6550271QE 7877947AE Growth Rate % 13.9 16.3 16.1 12 17.3 20.3 GDP (factor cost 2004-05 prices) Growth Rate Saving Rate ` crore % % of GDP 3254216 9.5 33.5 3566011 9.6 34.6 3898958 9.3 36.9 4162509PE 6.8 32.2 4493743QE 8.0 33.7 4879232AE 8.6 na Capital Formation (Rate) % of GDP 34.7 36.7 38.1 34.5 36.5 na Per Cap. Net National Income (Factor cost at current prices) ` 27123 31198 35820 40605 46492 54527
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32
Q
71,2011 - I,”In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?”,(a) Commercial Banks,(b) Cooperative Banks,(c) Regional Rural Banks,(d) Microfinance Institutions
A
71,(a) Commercial Banks – 60% Co-operative Banks – 30% RRB and others – 10%
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33
Q
72,2012 - I,”Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India? 1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament 2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill 3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account 4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office 5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament Select the correct answer using the codes given below:”,(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only,(b) 1, 2 and 4 only,(c) 3, 4 and 5 only,(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
A
72,(a) 1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament 2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill 3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account 5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
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34
Q
73,2012 - I,”The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following? 1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI. 2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need. 3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:”,(a) 2 and 3 only,(b) 1 and 2 only,(c) 1 and 3 only,(d) 1, 2 and 3
A
73,(d) All the statements are correct.
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35
Q
74,2013 - I,”In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for”,(a) economic development,(b) redemption of public debt,(c) adjusting the balance of payments,(d) reducing the foreign debt
A
74,(a) Deficit financing refers to the difference between expenditure and receipts. In public finance, it means the govt. is spending more than what it is earning. Deficit financing is a necessary evil in a welfare state as the states often fail to generate tax revenue which is sufficient enough to take care of the expenditure of the state. The basic intention behind deficit financing is to provide the necessary impetus to economic growth by artificial means.
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36
Q
75,2013 - I,”Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to”,(a) agriculture,(b) micro and small enterprises,(c) weaker sections,(d) All of the above
A
75,(d) Priority sector lending constitutes the lending to– agriculture, micro and small enterprises, micro credit, education, housing and weaker sections.
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37
Q
76,2013 - I,”Which one of the following groups of items is included in India’s foreign-exchange reserves?”,(a) Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries,(b) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDR’s,(c) Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs,(d) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank
A
76,(b) In India’s foreign exchange reserve, it includes foreign currency deposits, bonds, gold reserves, SDRs and IMF reserve position. Foreign exchange reserves are an important part of the international investment position of a country.
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38
Q
77,2013 - I,”The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the”,(a) total value of goods and services produced by the nationals,(b) sum of total consumption and investment expenditure,(c) sum of personal income of all individuals,(d) money value of final goods and services produced
A
77,(d) National Income is the money value of all the final goods and services produced by a country during a period of one year. National Income consists of a collection of different types of goods and services of different types.
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39
Q
78,2013 - I,”Which of the following constitute Capital Account? 1. Foreign Loans 2. Foreign Direct Investment 3. Private Remittances 4. Portfolio Investment Select the correct answer using the codes given below.”,(a) 1, 2 and 3,(b) 1, 2 and 4,(c) 2, 3 and 4,(d) 1, 3 and 4
A
78,(b) Capital Account comprises of Foreign loans, Foreign Direct Investment and Portfolio Investment. Capital Account is the net result of public and private international investments flowing in and out of a country. Portfolio investment is the buying of shares and bonds. FDI is the investments by foreigners in a country or the citizens investing in foreign countries.
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40
Q
79,2013 - I,”In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open Market Operations’ refers to”,(a) borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI,(b) lending by commercial banks to industry and trade,(c) purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI,(d) None of the above
A
79,c,”It is an activity by a central bank(RBI) to buy or sell government securities. The aim of open market operations is to manipulate the short term interest rate and the supply of base money in an economy, and indirectly control the total money supply.”,c
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41
Q
80,2014 - I,”The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is”,(a) inclusive growth and poverty reduction,(b) inclusive and sustainable growth,(c) sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment,(d) faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth
A
80,d,”12th Five Year Plan of the Government of India (2012-17) aims at faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth.”,d
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42
Q
81,2014 - I,”The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to”,(a) banking operations,(b) communication networking,(c) military strategies,(d) supply and demand of agricultural products
A
81,a,”Marginal Standing Facility rate is the rate at which banks borrow funds overnight from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) against approved government securities. Net Demand and time liability is the sum of demand and time liability of Banks with public and other banks wherein assets with other banks is subtracted to get net liability of other bank.”,a
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43
Q
82,2015-I,”With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”,(a) 1 only,(b) 2 only,(c) Both 1 and 2,(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
82,b,”Due to recession in 2008, the growth rate of the Indian economy had declined for the next few years from 8-9% to 5-6%. Even though the growth rate had declined, it never became negative. So, the GDP at market prices has always increased year on year since last one decade”,b
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44
Q
83,2018 - I,”Which one of the following best describes the term ““Merchant Discount Rate”” sometimes seen in news?”,(a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.,(b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.,(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.,(d) The incentive given by the Government, to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.
A
83,c,”Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is the fee borne by the merchant for using credit and debit card payment system. To encourage digital transactions, Ministry of Electronics and information technology (MEITY) had announced that from 1 January 2018 for the next two years, it’ll bear the MDR fees of merchants, for payments up-to Rs.2,000/- IF such payment is made via debit card, BHIM or Aadhar enabled payment system.”,c
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45
Q
84,2018-I,”With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements: 1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account. 2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”,(a) 1 only,(b) 2 only,(c) Both 1 and 2,(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
84,a,”BHIM App was launched in 2016, it allows money transfer to UPI-enabled bank accounts so #1 is right. The BHIM apps has three levels of authentication. For one, the app binds with a device’s ID and mobile number, second a user needs to sync whichever bank account (UPI or non-UPI enabled) in order to the conduct transaction. Third, when a user sets up the app they are asked to create a pin which is needed to log into the app. Hence #2 is wrong.”,a
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46
Q
85,2018-I,”Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India ?”,(a) Indian banks’ Association,(b) National Securities Depository Limited,(c) National Payments Corporation of India,(d) Reserve Bank of India
A
85,c,”Till 2009, RBI’s Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) provided the linkages to ATM network in India but afterwards, it was taken over by NPCi’s National Financial Switch (NFS).”,c
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47
Q
86,2018-I,”Consider the following statements: 1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues. 2. CAR is decided by each individual bank. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”,(a) 1 only,(b) 2 only,(c) Both 1 and 2,(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
86,a,”CAR is decided by the benchmarks set by BASEL-III Committee on Banking supervision and implemented by the central bank of individual country. So, #2 is right, whereas #1 is correct.”,a
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48
Q
87,2018-I,”Consider the following statements 1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management ( FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. 2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments. 3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”,(a) 1 only,(b) 2 and 3 only,(c) 1 and 3 only,(d) 1, 2 and 3
A
87,c,”As per Economic Survey, first statement is right but Central Government’s domestic liability is ~46% so #2 is wrong. By elimination, we get (C)”,c
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49
Q
88,2018-I,”Consider the following items: 1. Cereal grains hulled 2. Chicken eggs cooked 3. Fish processed and canned 4. Newspaper containing advertising material Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?”,(a) 1 only,(b) 2 and 3 only,(c) 1, 2 and 4 only,(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A
88,c,”When client books add in newspaper, he has to pay 18% GST to newspaper owner who deposits it to Government. But when such newspaper is sold to public, they are not required to pay newspaper price + GST. So #4 is exempted from GST. Processed / Canned food (#3) is subject to GST. So, by elimination, we get correct answer C. Some experts were divided that if eggs are cooked in a 5-star hotel, it’ll be subjected to GST however UPSC’s official Answer key has kept C is the correct option.”,c
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50
Q
89,2018-I,”With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act
2. . 2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the ““Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements””. Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,(a) 1 only,(b) 2 only,(c) Both 1 and 2,(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
89,d,”This was introduced in 2016, as a separate legislation under Finance Bill, and it doesn’t provide tax credit in home country so both wrong.”,d
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51
Q
90,2018-I,”Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to”,(a) weak administrative machinery,(b) illiteracy,(c) high population density,(d) high capital-output ratio
A
90,d,”Capital Output Ratio (ICOR) measures the percentage increase in capital formation required obtaining a percentage increase in GDP. Entrepreneurs, by investing their own savings and informally mobilizing the savings of their friends and relatives contribute to the process of capital formation. These informal funding supplements the funds made available by the formal means of raising resources from banks, financial institutions and capital markets. So, ““D”” is the fitting option- if capital to output ratio is high then capital formation may not result in significant increase in the output.”,d
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52
Q
91,2019-I,”Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?”,(a) Advances,(b) Deposits,(c) Investments,(d) Money at call and short notice
A
91,b,”NCERT Macroeconomics Class12, page 40: observe the table 3.1: Deposits are plotted on the liability side of a commercial bank’s balance sheet.”,b
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53
Q
92,2019-I,”In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis? 1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector. 2. Increasing the government expenditure. 3. Remittances from Indians abroad. Select the correct answer using the code given below.”,(a) 1 only,(b) 1 and 3 only,(c) 2 only,(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
A
92,b,”Currency crisis usually denotes that Indian Rupee is weakening and dollar is strengthening at a rapid level. In ordinary circumstances, rupee dollar exchange rate is determined by the market forces of supply and demand. Therefore we have to encourage the inflow of dollars to reduce the risk of currency crisis. #1 and #3 can help in this regard, #2 is irrelevant. Infact #2 can backfire if raising Government Expenditure results in excessive printing of Rupee currency. Thus, by elimination answer is b: 1 and 3.”,b
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54
Q
93,2019-I,”The Chairman of public sector banks are selected by the”,(a) Banks Board Bureau,(b) Reserve Bank of India,(c) Union Ministry of Finance,(d) Management of concerned bank
A
93,a,”Bank Board Bureau (BBB) was setup in 2016, BBB selects top officials (MD, CEO, Chairman and full-time Directors) for PSBs, LIC and other public sector financial institutions.”,a
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55
Q
94,2019-I,”Consider the following statements : 1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India. 2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas. 3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals of Electricity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”,(a) 1 and 2 only,(b) 2 and 3 only,(c) 1 and 3 only,(d) 1, 2 and 3
A
94,b,”PNGRB was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. SEBI was formed in 1988 by an executive order, given statutory status in 1992. Besides, IRDAI and many other regulatory bodies were setup before 2006. So, PNGRB is certainly not the first body to be setup by Govt of India. #1 is wrong, by elimination we are left with answer b.”,b
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56
Q
95,2019-I,”The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat command the payment system providers that : 1. They shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India. 2. They shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises. 3. They shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct”,(a) 1 only,(b) 1 and 2 only,(c) 3 only,(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
A
95,a,”As per RBI’s directive, payment system providers are required to store the data in India only. Other features are not required by RBI.”,a
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57
Q
96,2020-I,”What is the importance of the term “Interest Coverage Ratio” of a firm in India? 1. It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give a loan to. 2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give a loan to. 3. The higher a borrowing firm’s level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt. Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,(a) 1 and 2 only,(b) 2 only,(c) 1 and 3 only,(d) 1, 2 and 3
A
96,a,”NCERT class 12 Accountancy book also confirms, “A higher Interest coverage ratio ensures safety of interest on debts.” Third statement is wrong. Statement 1 is correct, By looking at the interest coverage ratio we can identify the present risk of a firm (That it is not generating good revenue). There is only “A” option where statement#1 is present.”,a
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58
Q
97,2020-I,”With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. ‘Commercial Paper’ is a short-term unsecured promissory note. 2. ‘Certificate of Deposit’ is a long-term instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of India to a corporation. 3. ‘Call Money’ is a short-term finance used for interbank transactions. 4. ‘Zero-Coupon Bonds’ are the interest bearing shortterm bonds issued by the Scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct”,(a) 1 and 2 only,(b) 4 only,(c) 1 and 3 only,(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
A
- (c) • Certificate of deposit is a short term debt instrument. #2 is wrong since it says ‘long term instrument’. This eliminates a and d. • #3: Call money is a short term finance for interbank transactions that is correct. So, Answer is (c).
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59
Q
98,2020-I,”In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial debt includes which of the following ? 1. Housing loans owed by households 2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards 3. Treasury bills Select the correct answer using the code given below :”,(a) 1 only,(b) 1 and 2 only,(c) 3 only,(d) 1, 2 and 3
A
- (d) • “Non-Financial debt” excludes the debt of Financial Institutions i.e. those institutions that borrow solely to re-lend and the money. [In other words if, NABARD, ILFS etc had borrowed money to re-lend it, then it’d be financial debt. And all other type of debt will be “nonFinancial debt”] • So, In above options, all three loans are taken by persons or entities who’ll not ‘re-lend’ it, but They will use the funds for their own purpose. Therefore, Answer should be “(d)”
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60
Q
Note Number,Note Content
A
Question,Answer,Explanation
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61
Q
1,Which one of the following Five Year Plans recognised human development as the core of all development efforts? [1995] (a) The Third Five Year Plan (b) The Fifth Five Year Plan (c) The Sixth Five Year Plan (d) The Eighth Five Year Plan
A
1,d,In the eight five year plan (1992-1997), the top priority was given to the development of the human resources i.e., employment, education, and public health.
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62
Q
2,Which of the following are among the non-plan expenditures of the Government of India? [1995, 1997] 1. Defence expenditure 2. Subsidies 3. All expenditures linked with the previous plan periods 4. Interest payment Codes: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A
2,d,Non-plan expenditures include non-developmental expenditure (interest payment, subsidies, defence).
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63
Q
3,What is the annual rate aimed in the Eighth Five Year Plan [1995] (a) 5.6% (b) 6% (c) 6.5% (d) 7%
A
3,a,The targeted annual growth rate was 5.6% but the actual growth rate was 6.7%.
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64
Q
4,The largest source of financing the public sector outlay of the Eighth Five Year Plan comes from: [1995] (a) balance from current revenue (b) contribution of public enterprises (c) government borrowings (d) deficit financing
A
4,d,Financing of Eighth five year plan outlay In the Public sector (Rupees in crores) Capital Receipts revenues Budgetory Source: GOI., Planning Commission, various plan documents. Economic survey GOI, 1999-2000.
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65
Q
5,The New Exim Policy announced in 1992, is for period of : [1995] (a) 3 years (b) 4 years (c) 7 years (d) 5 years
A
5,d,The New Exim Policy was for five years (April 1, 1992 – March 31, 1997).
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66
Q
6,Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : An important policy instrument of economic liberalization is reduction in import duties on capital goods. Reason (R) : Reduction in import duties would help the local entrepreneurs to improve technology to face the global markets. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct? [1996] (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation (b) Both A and R are true R is not a correct explanation (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true
A
6,a,Both statements are correct and explain one of the instruments to liberalise the Indian economy.
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67
Q
7,The Eighth Five Year Plan is different from the earliest ones. The critical difference lies in the fact that: [1996] (a) it has a considerably larger outlay compared to the earlier plans (b) it has a major thrust on agricultural and rural development (c) considerable emphasis is placed on infrastructure growth (d) industrial licensing has been abolished
A
7,d,Eighth Five Year Plan (1992-97) had a bigger outlay with energy being given 26.6% of total outlay to a cheque a targeted growth rate of 6.78% per annum.
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68
Q
8,Consider the following statements : Most international agencies which find Development Programme in India on intergovernmental bilateral agreements, mainly provide: [1996] 1. Technical assistance 2. Soft loans which are required to be paid back with interest 3. Grants, not required to be paid back 4. Food assistance to be paid back (a) 2 and 4 are correct (b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (d) 3 and 4 are correct
A
8,b,A soft loan is a loan with a below market rate of interest. It also includes concessions to borrowers such as long repayment periods or interest holidays. Technical assistance is aid involving highly educated or trained personnel, such as doctors, who are moved into a developing country to assist with a program of development. Food assistance is given to countries in urgent need of food supplies, especially if they have just experienced a natural disaster. Grant is usually given to governments through individual countries, international aid agencies and through multilateral institutions such as the world Bank and by through development charities.
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69
Q
9,Consider the following items imported by India: [1996] 1. Capital goods 2. Petroleum 3. Pearls and precious stones 4. Chemicals 5. Iron and Steel The correct sequence of the decreasing order of these items (as per 94-95 figures), in terms of value is: (a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (b) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 (c) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 (d) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
A
9,c,Value of import in India as per 94-95 figures: 1. Petroleum oils and oils - US$ 3,285,560.58 million obtained from bituminou 2. Petroleum oils oils, etc.-US $ 2,642,351.87 millions (excl. crude), Preparation 3. Diamonds non-industrial-US $ 1,500, 668.80 million unworked or simply swan.
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70
Q
10,The Sixth and the Eighth Five Year Plans covered the period 1980-1985 and 1992-1997 respectively. The Seventh Five Year Plan covered the period: [1997] (a) 1987-1992 (b) 1986 -1991 (c) 1985-1990 (d) 1988 -1994
A
10,c.Period between 1990-92 was second plan holiday. The first plan holiday was between 1966-69.
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71
Q
11,Economic Survey in India is published officially, every year by the: [1998] (a) Reserve Bank of India (b) Planning Commission of India (c) Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India (d) Ministry of Industries, Govt. of India
A
11,c,Economy Survey in India is published officially, every year by the Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India. and issued before the annual budget. It reviews the development in the Indian economy over the previous 12 months.
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72
Q
12,Which one of the following regions of the world supplies the maximum of our imported commodities (in terms of rupee value)? [1998] (a) Africa (b) America (c) Asia and Oceania (d) Europe
A
12,a,India imported most of their commodities from Asia and Oceania.
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73
Q
13,The planning process is the industries sector in India has assumed a relatively less important position in the nineties as compared to that in the earlier period. Which one of the following is not true in this regard? [1999]
(a) With the advent of liberalisation, industrial investment development have largely been placed within the domain of private and multinational sectors
(b) With market assuming a central place, the role of central planning in many sectors has been rendered redundant
(c) The focus of planning has shifted to sectors like human resource
(d) The nation’s priorities have shifted away from industrial development to rural development
A
13,d,Statement (a), (b) and (c) are true which explain the declining important position of industries sector after nineties in the planning process.
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74
Q
14,Which one of the following is the objective of National Renewal Fund? [1999] (a) To safeguard the interests of workers who may be affected by technological upgradation of industry or closure of sick units (b) To develop the core sector of the economy (c) For the development of infrastructure such as energy, transport communications and irrigation (d) For human resource development such as full literacy, employment population control, housing and drinking water
A
14,c,The concept of the National Renewal Fund was announced by the Government as a part of the New Industrial Policy, 1991. The Government established the National Renewal Fund (NRF) by a Government of India resolution on 3rd February , 1992.
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75
Q
15,The Employment Assurance Scheme envisages financial assistance to rural areas for guaranteeing employment to at least: [1999] (a) 50 percent of the men and women seeking jobs in rural areas (b) 50 percent of the men seeking jobs in rural areas (c) one man and one woman in a rural family living below the poverty line (d) one person in a rural landless household living below the poverty line
A
15,a,Employment Assurance scheme was launched on 2nd October, 1993. It is open to all adult rural poor who are in need of wage employment. A maximum of two adults per family would be provided wage employment, when there is demand during lean agricultural season, subject to availability of funds.
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76
Q
16,A rise in ‘SENSEX’ means: [2000] (a) a rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange (b) a rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with National Stock Exchange (c) an overall rise in prices of shares of group up companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange (d) a rise in prices of shares of all companies belonging to a group of companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange
A
16,c,Increase in SENSEX reflects the overall mood of the economy. A rise in it means that investors and FIIs are positive about the growth of Indian economy and expect that it will be sustained in future.
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77
Q
17,Assertion (A) : The rate of growth of India’s exports has shown an appreciable increase after 1991. [2000] Reason (R) : The Govt. of India has resorted to devaluation. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true
A
17,a,Devaluation of currency is conscious decision taken by Central bank of country to lower the external value of domestic currency. As a result of this Indian goods become cheaper for Foreigners. Import decrease and exports increases.
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78
Q
18,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: [2000] List-I List-II
A. UN Development 1. UN India Human Programme Development Report
B. National Council 2. India Development of Applied Economic Report Research
C. Indira Gandhi 3. World Development Institute of Research Development Research
D. World Bank 4. Human Development Report Codes: (a) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4 (b) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3 (c) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1 (d) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
A
18,b,UN Development programme brings out UN India Human Development Report. National council of Applied Economic Research brings out India Development Report. Human Development Report is bring out by world Bank. World Development Research is carried out by Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research.
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79
Q
19,“…instil into the vast millions of workers, men and women, who actually do the job, a sense of partnership and of cooperative performance…” The above passage relates to: [2000] (a) Planned Development (b) Community Development (c) Panchayati Raj System (d) Integrated Development Programme
A
19,c,Community Development is a process where community members come together to take collective action and generate solutions to common problems. It seeks to empower individuals and groups of people with expenditure, civil administration), developmental expenditure and expenditure incurred on projects which remained unfinished in the earlier plans.
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80
Q
20,Economic liberalisation in India started with: [2000] (a) substantial changes in industrial licensing policy (b) the convertibility of Indian rupee (c) doing away with procedural formalities for foreign direct investment (d) significant reduction in tax rates
A
20,a,Economic liberalization in India started with industrial de-licensing.
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81
Q
21,Consider the following statements: [2000] The Indian rupee is fully convertible: 1. in respect of Current Account of Balance of payment 2. in respect of Capital Account of Balance of payment 3. into gold Which of these statements is/are correct ? (a) 1 alone (b) 3 alone (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
21,a,In respect of capital account of balance of payment, the Indian rupee is partially convertible after 1991.
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82
Q
22,The growth rate of per capita income at current prices is higher than that of per capita income at constant prices, because the latter takes into account the rate of : [2000] (a) growth of population (b) increase in price level (c) growth of money supply (d) increase in the wage rate
A
22,b,The growth rate of per capita income at current prices is higher than that of per capita income at constant prices, because current prices are influenced by the effect of price inflation.
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83
Q
23,Consider the following: [2001] 1. Market borrowing 2. Treasury bills 3. Special securities issued to RBI Which of these is/are components(s) of internal debt? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
23,d,Internal debt is that part of the total debt that is owed to lenders within the country. Market borrowings, Treasury bills and special securities issued to RBI are all sources of internal borrowings.
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84
Q
24,Global capital flows to developing countries increased significantly during the nineties. In view of the East Asian financial crisis and Latin American experience, which type of inflow is good for the host country? [2002] (a) Commercial loans (b) Foreign Direct Investment (c) Foreign Portfolio Investment (d) External Commercial borrowings
A
24,b,FDI is defined as investment by a foreign multinational or its subsidiary or a foreign company in terms of setting up a project in another country either by way of a 100% subsidiary or by way of a joint venture. Thus, FDI investment is long term in nature. Thus, it can not be pulled out of the country at short notice. It is also non-debt creating.
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85
Q
25,Five Year Plan in India is finally approved by: [2002] (a) Union Cabinet (b) President on the advice of Prime Minister (c) Planning Commission (d) National Development Council
A
25,d,In India, plans are formulated by the Planning Commission and are finally approved by the National Development Council. All state chief ministers are members of NDC. The NDC is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
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86
Q
26,A country is said to be a debt trap if : [2002] (a) it has to borrow to make interest payments on outstanding loans (b) It has to abide by the conditionalities imposed by the International Monetary fund. (c) it has been refused loans or aid by creditors abroad (d) the World Bank charges a very high rate of interest on outstanding as well as new loans
A
26,a,Debt Trap is a situation where you add on a new debt in order to repay an existing debt.
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87
Q
27,Which one of the following is the correct statement? Service tax is a/an: [2006] (a) direct tax levied by the Central Government. (b) indirect tax levied by the Central Government. (c) direct tax levied by the State Government. (d) indirect tax levied by the State Government.
A
27,b,All taxes which are the personal liability of an assessee come under direct taxes. They include income tax, professional tax, wealth tax, securities transaction tax, commodity transaction tax and the like. On the other hand, the taxes which a person can recover from some other person but the liability of which remains of the person collecting such taxes are indirect taxes. These are custom duty, excise, service tax, VAT, CST and the like.
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88
Q
28,During which Five Year Plan was the Emergency clamped, new elections took place and the Janata Party was elected? [2009] (a) Third (b) Fourth (c) Fifth (d) Sixth
A
28,c,This all happened from 1975-78 during the fifth five-year plan, the period of which is (1974-78).
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89
Q
29,Consider the following statements regarding Indian Planning: [2009] 1. The Second Five-Year Plan emphasized on the establishment of heavy industries. 2. The Third Five-Year Plan introduced the concept of import substitution as a strategy for industrialization. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
29,a,The second five-year plan emphasized on the development of the public sector and “rapid industrialization. The third five-year plan stressed on agriculture and improvement in the production of food grains with long-term development.
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90
Q
30,Which one of the following brings out the publication called “Energy Statistics” from time to time? [2009] (a) Central Power Research Institute (b) Planning Commission (c) Power Finance Corporation Ltd. (d) Central Statistical Organization
A
30,d,It is published by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Central Statistical Organization.
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91
Q
31,In the context of independent India’s economy, which one of the following was the earliest event to take place? [2009] (a) Nationalization of Insurance companies (b) Nationalization of State Bank of India (c) Enactment of Banking Regulation Act (d) Introduction of First Five-Year Plan
A
31,c,Nationalization of State Bank of India – 1955; Introduction of First Five-Year Plan – 1951; Enactment of Banking Regulation Act – 1949; Nationalization of Insurance Companies – 1955-56.
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92
Q
32,The SEZ Act, 2005 which came, into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following: [2010] 1. Development of infrastructure facilities. 2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources. 3. Promotion of exports of services only. Which of the above are the objectives of this Act? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
32,a,The objectives of establishing SEZs (Special Economic Zones) include making available goods and services free of taxes and duties supported by an integrated infrastructure for export production, and single window approval mechanism and a package of incentives to attract foreign and domestic investments for promoting export-led growth.
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93
Q
33,A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than from many major and mature economies like UK and France. Why? [2010] (a) India has preference for certain countries as regards receiving FDI (b) India has double taxation avoidance agreement with Mauritius (c) Most citizens of Mauritius have ethnic identity with India and so they feel secure to invest in India (d) Impending dangers of global climatic change prompt Mauritius to make huge investments in India
A
33,b,India has comprehensive Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAA) with 23 countries. This means that there are agreed rates of tax and jurisdiction on specified types of income arising in a country to a tax resident of another country. Under the Income Tax Act 1961 of India, there are two specific provisions, Section 90 and Section 91, which provide specific relief to taxpayers to save them from DTAA. Section 90 is for taxpayers who have paid the tax in a country with which India has signed DTAA, while Section 91 provides relief to taxpayers who have paid tax to a country with which India has not signed a DTAA. Thus, India gives relief to both kinds of taxpayers. Mauritius by itself is a low tax country.
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94
Q
34,India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the Planning Commission as a mega science project under the 11th Five-Year Plan. In this context, consider the following statements: [2010] 1. Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light. 2. Neutrinos are created, in nuclear reactions of beta decay. 3. Neutrinos have a negligible, but non-zero mass 4. Trillions of Neutrinos pass through human body every second. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A
34,d,A neutrino is an elementary particle that usually travels close to the speed of light, is electrically neutral, and is able to pass through ordinary matter almost undisturbed. This makes neutrinos extremely difficult to detect. Neutrinos have a very small, but nonzero rest mass. Neutrinos are affected only by a ‘weak’ sub-atomic force of much shorter range than electromagnetism, and are therefore able to pass through great distances in matter without being affected by it.
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95
Q
35,Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan does not include one of the following: [2010] (a) Reduction of poverty (b) Extension of employment opportunities (c) Strengthening of capital market (d) Reduction of gender inequality
A
35,c,Inclusive growth is ‘broad-based growth’, ‘shared growth’, and ‘pro-poor growth’. It excludes the capital markets which is left to operate by itself in the open market.
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96
Q
36,Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament? [2010] (a) The President of India (b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) The Prime Minister of India (d) The Union Finance Minister
A
36,a,As per provisions given under Article 281 of the Indian Constitution, the recommendations of the finance commission go to the president who is constitutionally bound to place it before the two houses of the parliament.
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97
Q
37,Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament? [2010] (a) Department of Revenue (b) Department of Economic Affairs (c) Department of Financial Services (d) Department of Expenditure
A
37,b,The DEA or the Department of Economic Affairs is responsible for preparation and presentation to the Parliament of Central Budget and the Budgets for the State Governments under President’s Rule and Union Territory Administration.
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98
Q
38,Consider the following actions by the Government: [2010] 1. Cutting the tax rates 2. Increasing the government spending 3. Abolishing the subsidies in the context of economic recession Which of the above actions can be considered a part of the “fiscal stimulus” package? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
38,a,Abolishing the subsidies will lead to higher prices of goods and services which are subsidized. A reduction in the tax rate would be a stimulus. While an increase in government expenditure would increase the level of demand in the economy.
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99
Q
39,In the context of India’s Five Year Plans, a shift in the pattern of industrialization, with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in [2010] (a) Fourth Plan (b) Sixth Plan (c) Eighth Plan (d) Tenth Plan
A
39,c,It was during the eighth plan period (1992-97) that emphasis was put on infrastructure development.
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100
Q
40,With reference to the Nationa1 Investment Fund to which the disinvestment proceeds are routed, consider the following statements: [2010] 1. The assets in the National Investment Fund are managed by the Union Ministry of Finance. 2. The National Investment Fund is to be maintained within the Consolidated Fund of India. 3. Certain Asset Management companies are appointed as the fund managers. 4. A certain proportion of annual income is used for financing select social sectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 3 and 4 (d) 3 only
A
40,c,On 27 January 2005, the Government had decided to constitute a ‘National Investment Fund’ (NIF) into which realization from sale of minority shareholding of the Government in CPSEs would be channelized. This fund is managed by professionals and a part of it is used for use in social sector – like education, health care, and employment.
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101
Q
41,In India, the tax proceeds of which one of the following as a percentage of gross tax revenue has significantly declined in the last five years? [2010] (a) Service tax (b) Personal income tax (c) Excise duty (d) Corporation tax
A
41,c,The excise duty’s share in the total tax revenue, which was 41.3 percent in 1992-93, declined to 25.1 percent in 2006-07. The customs duty’s share in the total tax revenue, which was 31.9 percent in 1992-93, fell to 17.5 percent in 2006-07, as a result of massive structuring on excise and customs.
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102
Q
42,Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State? [2010] (a) District Planning Committees (b) State Finance Commission (c) Finance ministry of that State (d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State
A
42,b,State Finance Commission governs the distribution between the State and the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes, duties, tolls, and fees leviable by the State, which may be divided between them under this Part and the allocation between the Panchayats at all levels of their respective shares of such proceeds; the determination of the taxes, duties, tolls, and fees which may be assigned as, or appropriated by, the Panchayats; the grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State.
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103
Q
43,Consider the following statements: In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exchanges and Futures Markets are [2010] 1. levied by the Union 2. collected by the States Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
43,a,In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exchange and Future Markets are levied and collected by the Union Govt.
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104
Q
44,India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons? 1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%. 2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change. 3. The food supply chain has structural constraints. [2011 - I] Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
44,b,Notwithstanding some moderation, food price inflation has remained persistently elevated for over a year now, reflecting in part the structural demand-supply mismatches in several commodities. The trend of food inflation was pointing at not only structural demand-supply mismatches in commodities comprising the essential consumption basket but also at changing consumption patterns.
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105
Q
Question Number,Question,Option A,Option B,Option C,Option D
A
Question,Answer,Explanation
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106
Q
45,”In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX commonwealth games in India amounted to”,Export,Import,Production,Consumption
A
45,a,Income from “tourism” is an invisible export and brings foreign exchange into the country.
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107
Q
46,”Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal stimulus” ?”,It is a massive investment by the government in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth.,It is an intense affirmative action of the government to boost economic activity in the country.,It is government’s intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation.,It is an extreme affirmative action by the government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion.
A
46,b,Governments use fiscal policy to influence the level of aggregate demand in the economy. It is an effort to achieve economic objectives of price stability, full employment, and economic growth.
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108
Q
- Consider the following actions which the government can
take : [2011 - I] - Devaluing the domestic currency.
- Reduction in the export subsidy.
- Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI
and more funds from FIIs.
Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the
current account deficit ?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3
A
47,d,Current Account deficit is the excess of imports over exports. After devaluation of domestic currency, domestic goods would become cheaper which will create additional demand for the country’s products in the world markets. Rising capital inflow through FDI and FII may appreciate the domestic currency and can worsen a country’s current account by increasing more imports and reducing exports. FDI and FII represent non-debt liabilities.
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109
Q
- Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign
Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a
country. Which one of the following statements best
represents an important difference between the two ?
[2011 - I]
(a) FII helps bring better management skills and
technology, while FDI only brings in capital.
(b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general,
while FDI only targets specific sectors.
(c) FDI flows only into the secondary market while FII
targets primary market
(d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI.
A
48,b,Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) targets a specific enterprise to increase its capacity, productivity, or change its management control. FII investment flows only into the secondary market, increasing capital availability in general rather than enhancing the capital of a specific enterprise. FDI is considered more stable than Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) as it brings in capital, helps in good governance practices, better management skills, and technology transfer.
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110
Q
- With reference to “Aam Admi Bima Yojana’’, consider the
following statements ? - The member insured under the scheme must be the
head of the family or an earning member of the family
in a rural landless house-hold. - The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to
65 years. - There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two
children of the insured who are studying between
classes 9 and 12. [2011 - I]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
49,c,The first and third statements are correct, but the second statement is wrong because the member should be aged between 18 and 59 years, not 30 and 65 years.
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111
Q
- Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people
of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers
and the self-employed. The service/services rendered under
microfinance is/are : [2011 - I] - Credit facilities 2. Savings facilities
- Insurance facilities 4. Fund Transfer facilities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists ?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A
50,d,Microfinance aims for a world where as many poor and near-poor households as possible have permanent access to a range of high-quality financial services, including credit, savings, insurance, and fund transfers.
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112
Q
51,”Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”?”,Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households,Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households,Adult members of households of all backward communities,Adult members of any household
A
51,d,All adult members of the household who register can apply for work, provided they are local residents.
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113
Q
- With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which
of the following statements is correct ? [2011 - I]
(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for
infrastructure development
(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among
the Public Sector Undertakings
(c) It ensures transparency in financial administration
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is
correct in his context
A
52,d,The Finance Commission makes recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, principles governing grants-in-aid of State revenues, and measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement resources of Panchayats and Municipalities.
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114
Q
- What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and
“interim budget” ? [2011 - I] - The provision of a “vote-on-account’’ is used by a
regular Government, while an “interim budget’’ is a
provision used by a caretaker Government - A “vote-on-account’’ only deals with the expenditure
in Government budget, while an “interim budget’’
includes both expenditure and receipts
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
53,b,The caretaker government does not present the Interim Budget; it is presented by the incoming or new government with different fiscal and revenue plans from the outgoing government. The Interim Budget includes both expenditures and receipts of the government’s budget and is presented for one year.
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115
Q
- Why is the offering of “teaser loans’’ by commercial banks
a cause of economic concern ? - The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of
sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the
risk of defaulters in future. - In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to
inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing
or export units. [2011 - I]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
54,a,Teaser loans are provided to home buyers in India, not for setting up manufacturing or export units.
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116
Q
- Which of the following can aid in furthering the
Government’s objective of inclusive growth ? [2011 - I] - Promoting Self-Help Groups.
- Promoting Micro Small and Medium Enterprises.
- Implementing the Right to Education Act.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 only
A
55,d,Inclusive growth aims at both economic and social empowerment of ordinary and underprivileged individuals.
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117
Q
- Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in
the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) ? - The Government intends to use the revenue earned
from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external
debt. - The Government no longer intends to retain the
management control of the
Poverty, Planning, Finance and Economic/Social Development D 17
Which the correct statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
56,d,While the government may intend to retain management control, fiscal constraints often lead to disinvestment. Therefore, both statements are incorrect.
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118
Q
57,”Economic growth is usually coupled with”,A. Deflation,B. Inflation,C. Stagflation,D. Hyperinflation
A
57,b,Inflation and economic growth are not compatible; inflation reduces the value of money and affects all sectors, as indicated by the Consumer Price Index (CPI).
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119
Q
58,”The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to”,A. more liquidity in the market,B. less liquidity in the market,C. no change in the liquidity in the market,D. mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks
A
58,a,The bank rate is the official interest rate at which the RBI provides loans to the banking system. Lowering the bank rate decreases the cost of borrowing for banks and increases credit volume, leading to more liquidity in the market.
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120
Q
- How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help
in the reduction of rural poverty in India? [2012 - I] - DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain
specified backward regions of the country. - DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the
causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare
detailed remedial measures. - DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental
coordination and cooperation for effective
implementation of anti-poverty programmes. - DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of
the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A
59,b,The DRDA oversees the implementation of anti-poverty programs but does not act as Panchayati Raj Institutions.
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121
Q
60,”The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?”,A. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level,B. Purchasing power parity at national level,C. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level,D. Both A and B
A
60,a,Deprivation in terms of education, health, assets, and services occurs at the household level.
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122
Q
61,”Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?”,
A. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design,
B. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend,
C. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants
,D. Both A and C
A
61,a,The 13th Finance Commission proposed an elaborate design for the Goods and Services Tax (GST), focusing on improved implementation of existing schemes and recommending a percentage of divisible pool taxes to be transferred to local bodies.
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123
Q
62,”Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development :”,A. Low birthrate with low death rate,B. High birthrate with high death rate,C. High birthrate with low death rate,D. Both A and C
A
62,c,Demographic Transition refers to the transition from high birth and death rates to lower rates as a country develops from a pre-industrial to an industrialized economic system.
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124
Q
63,”Under which of the following circumstances may ‘capital gains’ arise?”,A. When there is an increase in the sales of a product,B. When there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned,C. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity,D. All of the above
A
63,b,Increase in the sales of a product does not necessarily mean an increase in the selling price.
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125
Q
- Which of the following measures would result in an increase
in the money supply in the economy? [2012 - I] - Purchase of government securities from the public by
the Central Bank - Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public
- Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
- Sale of government securities to the public by the
Central Bank
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
A
64,c,Purchase of government securities from the public and borrowing by the government from the Central Bank are both ways of financing the fiscal deficit.
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126
Q
65,”Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?”,A. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India,B. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies,C. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies,D. Portfolio investment
A
65,d,Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) involves establishing a direct business interest in a foreign country, while Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) refers to investing in financial assets such as stocks or bonds in a foreign country.
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127
Q
\66. Who among the following constitute the National
Development Council? [2013 - I]
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A
66,b,The National Development Council includes the Prime Minister, Union ministers, Chief Ministers of all states, administrative heads of Union Territories, and members of the Planning Commission.
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128
Q
67,”To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?”,A. Promoting skill development,B. Introducing more social security schemes,C. Reducing infant mortality rate,D. Privatization of higher education
A
67,a,To benefit from the demographic dividend, skills development is essential as it enhances the productivity of the labor force.
129
Q
68,”A rise in general level of prices may be caused by”,A. an increase in the money supply,B. a decrease in the aggregate level of output,C. an increase in the effective demand,D. All of the above
A
68,d,General price rise (inflation) can result from an increase in the money supply, leading to reduced purchasing power and subsequently lower consumer spending.
130
Q
69,”Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?”,A. Repayment of public debt,B. Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit,C. Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deficit,D. Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
A
69,d,Extremely high rates of inflation are often associated with financing large deficits by printing money.
131
Q
- Supply of money remaining the same when there is an
increase in demand for money, there will be [2013 - I]
(a) a fall in the level of prices
(b) an increase in the rate of interest
(c) a decrease in the rate of interest
(d) an increase in the level of income and employment
A
70,b,When there is an increase in demand for money while the money supply remains constant, interest rates tend to increase.
132
Q
71,”Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if”,A. there is technical progress in the world economy,B. there is population growth in X,C. there is capital formation of X,D. the volume of trade grows in the world economy
A
71,c,A country’s economic growth is reflected through capital formation, which encourages private enterprises and boosts the economy.
133
Q
72,”If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will”,A. decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy,B. increase the tax collection of the Government,C. increase the investment expenditure in the economy,D. increase the total savings in the economy
A
72,c,When interest rates decrease, businesses tend to increase investment expenditure on capital goods like factories and equipment.
134
Q
- With reference to Union Budget, which of the following
is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure? [2014 - I] - Defence expenditure
- Interest payments
- Salaries and pensions
- Subsidies
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None
A
73,c,Non-plan expenditure includes various categories such as interest payments, subsidies, wage and salary payments, grants to states, pensions, defense, etc.
135
Q
74,”The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a”,A. tax imposed by the Central Government,B. tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government,C. tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government,D. tax imposed and collected by the State Government
A
74,d,Taxes on toothpaste come under the Goods and Services Tax (GST), which is administered by the state government.
136
Q
75,”What does venture capital mean?”,A. A short-term capital provided to industries,B. A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs,C. Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses,D. Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries
A
75,b,Venture capital (VC) is long-term financial capital provided to early-stage, high-potential, growth startup companies.
137
Q
76,”With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, consider the following statements:”,A. It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.,B. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.,C. Both 1 and 2,D. Neither 1 nor 2
A
76,d,The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IOR-ARC) aims to promote economic and technical cooperation among Indian Ocean Rim countries, fostering trade, socio-economic, and cultural cooperation across the region.
138
Q
77,”With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct?”,A. Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only,B. The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation,C. Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation,D. Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
A
77,c,During high inflation, RBI decreases money supply through tight monetary policy to reduce demand-pull inflation.
139
Q
\78. There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year.
Which of the following actions can be taken by the
government to reduce the deficit? [2015-I]
1. Reducing revenue expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
4. Expanding industries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A
78,a,To reduce budget deficit, the government needs to increase income and reduce expenditure. Introducing new welfare schemes and expanding industries increase government expenditure.
140
Q
79,”The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the”,A. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs,B. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices,C. Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture,D. Agricultural Produce Market Committee
A
79,a,The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
141
Q
80,”‘Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana’ has been launched for”,A. providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper interest rates,B. promoting women’s Self-Help Groups in backward areas,C. promoting financial inclusion in the country,D. providing financial help to the marginalized communities
A
80,c,Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) aims to ensure financial inclusion by providing access to banking, savings accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, and pension services in an affordable manner.
142
Q
81,”With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/ are correct?”,A. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.,B. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.,C. Both 1 and 2,D. Neither 1 nor 2
A
81,a,The Union Government accepted the 14th Finance Commission’s recommendation to devolve 42% of the divisible pool to states during 2015-16 to 2019-20.
143
Q
82,”Convertibility of rupee implies”,A. being able to convert rupee notes into gold,B. allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market forces,C. freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa,D. developing an international market for currencies in India
A
82,c,Currency convertibility refers to freely permitting the conversion of a country’s currency to other currencies and vice versa.
144
Q
83,”The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the”,A. Human Rights Commission,B. Finance Commission,C. Law Commission,D. Planning Commission
A
83,d,NITI Aayog was established by the Government of India to replace the Planning Commission. It was announced on January 1, 2015, and the first meeting was held on February 8, 2015.
145
Q
- With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development
Council’, consider the following statements : [2016-I] - It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
- It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.
- It monitors macroprudential supervision of the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
84,c,Financial Stability and Development Council is an apex-level body constituted by the government of India to deal with macro-prudential and financial regulations in the financial sector. It falls under the Department of Economic Affairs, and the Finance Minister is the chairman.
146
Q
- Regarding ‘Atal Pension Yojana’, which of the following
statements is/are correct? [2016-I] - It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme mainly
targeted at unorganized sector workers. - Only one member of a family can join the scheme.
- Same amount of pension is guaranteed for the spouse
for life after subscriber’s death.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
85,c,There is no restriction that only one member of a family can join the scheme.
147
Q
86,”With reference to ‘Stand up India scheme’, which of the following statement is/are correct?”,A. Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.,B. It provides for refinance through SIDBI.,C. Both 1 and 2,D. Neither 1 nor 2
A
86,c,Both statements are correct regarding the Stand up India Scheme.
148
Q
87,”Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at”,A. bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal financial system,B. providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops,C. providing pensions to old and destitute persons,D. funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation
A
87,a,Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana aims to help small businessmen who are unable to get loans from the formal financial system.
149
Q
88,”Which one of the following is a purpose of ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the Government?”,A. Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy,B. Providing electricity to every household in the country by 2018,C. Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time,D. Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies
A
88,d,Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY) is a financial turnaround package for electricity distribution companies in India.
150
Q
- What is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘District Mineral
Foundations’ in India? [2016-I] - Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineralrich districts
- Protecting the interests of the persons affected by
mining operations - Authorizing State Governments to issue licences for
mineral exploration
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
89,b,District Mineral Foundation (DMF) is a trust set up to work for the interest and benefit of persons and areas affected by mining-related operations.
151
Q
90,”‘SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at”,A. promoting the Self Help Groups in rural areas,B. providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs,C. promoting the education and health of adolescent girls,D. providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free
A
90,d,SWAYAM offers free online courses provided by professors from centrally funded institutions in India.
152
Q
91,”Regarding DigiLocker, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?”,A. It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under Digital India Programme.,B. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location.,C. Both 1 and 2,D. Neither 1 nor 2
A
91,c,DigiLocker is a digital locker service launched by the Government of India for storing citizens’ documents securely.
153
Q
92,”‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the Government of India pertains to”,A. immunization of children and pregnant women,B. construction of smart cities across the country,C. India’s own search for the Earth-like planets in outer space,D. New Educational Policy
A
92,a,The goal of Mission Indradhanush is to ensure full immunization of children under two years and pregnant women by 2020.
154
Q
93,”Consider the following statements:”,A. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.,B. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.,C. Both 1 and 2,D. Neither 1 nor 2
A
93,c,NPCI provides cost-effective payment solutions and launched RuPay card in 2012, contributing to financial inclusion.
155
Q
94,”Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?”,A. Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.,B. Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades.,C. FDI inflows will drastically increase.,D. Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.
A
94,a,Mobile wallets are not necessary as bank accounts are linked directly with the mobile number through UPI.
156
Q
- Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding
the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? [2017-I] - It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
- It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI
and is reconstituted every year. - It functions under the chairmanship of the Union
Finance Minister.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
A
95,a,The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has 6 members and is headed by the RBI governor.
157
Q
96,”What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?”,A. To supply credit to small business units,B. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers,C. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.,D. 1, 2 and 3
A
96,a,Encouraging micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) and women entrepreneurs were specific purposes when RBI invited applications for Small Finance Banks.
158
Q
97,”Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?”,A. Resident Indian citizens only,B. Persons of age from 21 to 55 only,C. All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments,D. All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004
A
97,c,The National Pension System (NPS) is open to any Indian between 18 to 55 years of age, including NRIs.
159
Q
- What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing
‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? [2017-I] - It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple
authorities and will thus create a single market in
India. - It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’
of India and will enable it to increase its foreign
exchange reserves. - It will enormously increase the growth and size of
economy of India and will enable it to overtake China
in the near future.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
98,a,Exports becoming zero-rated under GST is unlikely to drastically reduce the Current Account Deficit (CAD) or enormously increase the size of the economy in the near future.
160
Q
99,”With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:”,A. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.,B. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.,C. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.,D. 2 and 3 only
A
99,b,Benami properties can be seized by the Income Tax department, as per the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act.
161
Q
100,”Consider the following statements:”,A. Tax revenue as a per cent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.,B. Fiscal deficit as a per cent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.,C. Both 1 and 2,D. Neither 1 nor 2
A
100,d,Neither tax revenue nor fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP have steadily increased over the years.
162
Q
101,”What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’?”,A. Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government’s education system and local communities.,B. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.,C. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power.,D. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.
A
101,b,As per the Press Information Bureau, the correct answer is “b”.
163
Q
102,”With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct?”,A. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.,B. It has a corpus of ₹ 4, 00,000 crore at present.,C. Both 1 and 2,D. Neither 1 nor 2
A
102,d,The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is under the Department of Economic Affairs, and the given amounts are unrealistic.
164
Q
- Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National
Nutrition Mission’? [2017-I] - To create awareness relating to malnutrition among
pregnant women and lactating mothers. - To reduce the incidence of anemia among young
children, adolescent girls and women. - To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals
and unpolished rice. - To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
A
103,a,While promoting the consumption of millets, coarse cereals, and eggs may indirectly benefit poverty removal, it is not the explicit objective of the mission.
165
Q
- What is the purpose of Vidyanjali Yojana’? [2017-I]
- To enable the famous foreign educational institutions
to open their campuses in India. - To increase the quality of education provided in
government schools by taking help from the private
sector and the community. - To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from
private individuals and organizations so as to improve
the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary
schools.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
A
104,a,The primary purpose of the Vidyanjali initiative is to encourage youngsters to volunteer at government schools, not to mobilize voluntary monetary contributions or improve infrastructure facilities beyond primary and upper primary classes.
166
Q
- Consider the following statements:
[2018-I] - The Reserve Bank of India manages and services
Government of India Securities but not any State
Government Securities. - Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India
and there are no treasury bills issued by the State
Governments. - Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the
par value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 Only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
105,c,Short-term debt of State Governments includes internal debt such as market loans maturing within the next year and repayment of loans to the Centre.
167
Q
106,”If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then:”,A. the opportunity cost is zero.,B. the opportunity cost is ignored.,C. the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.,D. the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the products to the Government.
A
106,c,Opportunity cost involves the decision-maker choosing between alternative uses of finite resources, so it is borne by the decision-maker.
168
Q
107,”Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if”,A. industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.,B. agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.,C. poverty and unemployment increase.,D. imports grow faster than exports.
A
107,c,Economic development encompasses various economic changes beyond just economic growth, including improvements in quality of life indicators.
169
Q
108,”Atal innovation mission is set up under the”,A. Department of science of technology,B. Ministry of labour and employment,C. NITI Ayog,D. Ministry of skill development and entrepreneurship
A
108,c,The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative of the Prime Minister, established by NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship.
170
Q
109,”In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some states than in other because”,A. Poverty rates vary from state to state,B. Price levels vary from state to state,C. Gross state product varies from state to state,D. Quality of public distribution varies from state to state
A
109,b,The poverty lines in India are estimated using state-specific poverty lines updated to 2004–2005 prices using the Consumer Price Index of Agricultural Laborers (CPIAL) for rural poverty lines and Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPIIW) for urban poverty lines.
171
Q
- With reference to India’s Five Year Plans, which of the
following statements is/are correct? [2019-I] - From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a
determined thrust towards substitution of basic and
capital good industries. - The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of
correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration
of wealth and economic power. - In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the
financial sector was included as an integral part of
the Plan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
A
110,a,The Second Five Year Plan emphasized rapid industrialization, while the Fifth Five Year Plan aimed to control inflation, achieve self-reliance, and raise the consumption standard of people below the poverty line. Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
172
Q
- Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding
the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017? [2019-I] - Pregnant women are entitled for three months predelivery and three months post-delivery paid leave
- Enterprises with creches must allow the mother
minimum six creche visits daily - Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
A
111,c,As per the maternity benefit provisions in the relevant legislation, a woman with less than two children is entitled to 26 weeks of paid maternity leave, and establishments with 50 or more employees are required to provide crèche facilities within a prescribed distance. So, only statement 3 is correct.
173
Q
- Considering the following statements: [2019-I]
- Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are
calculated by the prices of the same basket of goods
and services in different countries. - In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest
economy in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
112,a,PPP is a hypothetical concept that compares exchange rates through purchasing power in respective countries. India became the third-largest world economy in terms of PPP according to a report by the World Bank in April 2014. So, only statement 1 is correct.
174
Q
113,”Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?”,A. Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports,B. Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala bonds,C. Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing,D. Following an expansionary monetary policy
A
113,d,Increasing rupee currency supply without a corresponding increase in the supply of dollars will lead to a further weakening of the Indian Rupee.
175
Q
114,”The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?”,A. Increase in the cash reserve ratio,B. Increase in the banking habit of the population,C. Increase in the statutory liquidity,D. Increase in the population of the country
A
114,b,A cut in legal reserve ratios (SLR, CRR) directly improves the money multiplier, while economic development indirectly improves it.
176
Q
- If another global financial crisis happens in the near
future, which of the following actions/policies are most
likely to give some immunity to India ? [2020-I] - Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings
- Opening up to more foreign banks
- Maintaining full capital account convertibility
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
115,a,Full capital account convertibility would make India vulnerable to global crises, and allowing more foreign banks could expose the Indian economy to foreign problems. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
177
Q
116,”If you withdraw Rs. 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy will be”,A. to reduce it by ₹ 1,00,000,B. to increase it by ₹ 1,00,000,C. to increase it by more than ₹ 1,00,000,D. to leave it unchanged
A
116,d,Withdrawing money from a demand deposit account and converting it into currency does not change the aggregate money supply (M3) because the money simply shifts from one category to another.
178
Q
117,”Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by”,A. Long standing parliamentary convention,B. Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India,C. Article 113 of the Constitution of India,D. Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
A
117,d,The document is presented as per the provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act.
179
Q
- Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term credit
support is given to farmers for which of the following
purposes ? [2020-I] - Working capital for maintenance of farm assets
- Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and mini
trucks - Consumption requirements of farm households
- Post-harvest expenses
- Construction of family house and setting up of
village cold storage facility
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
A
118,b,Kisan Credit Card is primarily meant for buying farm inputs, so options related to construction and setting up of village cold storage facilities are not applicable.
180
Q
- Consider the following statements [2020-I]
- The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index
(CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index
(WPI). - The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of
services, which CPI does. - Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its
key measure of inflation and to decide on changing
the key policy rates.
Which of the statements given- above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only 4, (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
119,a,Under the new monetary policy framework, RBI aims to control inflation at 2-6% of the Consumer Price Index (CPI). Both statements 2 and 3 are incorrect, leaving statement 1 as the only correct option.
181
Q
- With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991
economic liberalization, consider the following
statements : [2020-I] - Worker productivity per worker (at 2004-05 prices)
increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural
areas. - The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce
steadily increased. - In rural areas, the growth in the non-farm economy
increased. - The growth rate in rural employment decreased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4
A
120,b,After the LPG reforms of 1991, the rural/agricultural workforce was expected to shift towards urban/non-agricultural sectors, leading to a decrease in the percentage share of rural workers. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect, and statement 4 is correct.
182
Q
- In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of
the following benefits are generally covered, in addition
to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits ?
[2020-I] - Cost of restoration of the computer system in case
of malware disrupting access to one’s computer - Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully
damages it, if proved so - Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize
the loss in case of cyber extortion - Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third
party files a suit
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A
121,b,The concept of cyber insurance is primarily related to internet-related cyber security challenges, not physical damage caused by personal enemies or family members. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
183
Q
Question,Options
A
Question,Option,Explanation
184
Q
1,”Agricultural income tax is assigned to the State Government by: [1995] (a) Finance Commission (b) National Development Council (c) Inter-State Council (d) The Constitution of India”
A
1,(d),Art. 269 says taxes on income other than agricultural income shall be levied and collected by the Government of India and distributed between the Union and States. Entry 46 in the state list of Seventh Schedule. This gives power to the state governments to impose agricultural income tax.
185
Q
2,”In which one of the following crops international trade is low in the context of total produce? [1995] (a) Rice (b) Coffee (c) Rubber (d) Wheat”
A
2,(a),Rice production is highest in India among cereals but its quality of rice cannot compete with other rice producing countries. Most of rice produced in India is meant for internal consumption. India is a major producer and exporter of Basmati rice.
186
Q
3,”In India, rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes. Which of the following reasons account for this? [1996] 1. A large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture 2. Prices of primary products are lower than of manufactured products 3. Investment in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry Select the correct answer by using the codes given below: Codes: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3”
A
3,(d),Prevailing illiteracy in rural areas does not lower productivity. The farmer has adequate knowledge of farming techniques. Low prices of primary products compared to the manufactured products and investment in the agriculture sector compared to the industry are major factors which accounts for low incomes in rural economy than in Urban economy.
187
Q
4,”Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer: [1997] List-I (Commodities exported from India) List-II (Countries of destination)
A. Iron ore 1. Russia
B. Leather goods 2. U.S.A
C. Tea 3. Japan
D. Cotton fabrics 4. U.K.
5. Canada Codes: (a) A -5; B- 1; C -2; D- 3 (b) A -3; B- 1; C -4; D -2 (c) A -1; B-5; C - 4; D- 3 (d) A -3; B - 4; C-1; D -2”
A
4,(b),Iron ore is exported to Japan. Leather goods are exported to Russia. Tea is exported to U.K. Cotton fabric is exported to U.S.A.
188
Q
5,”Consider the following statements: [1999] Regional disparities in India are high and have been rising in recent years because: 1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locates. 2. Some areas are agro-climatically less conducive to development. 3. Some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and economic opportunities. 4. Some areas have faced continuous political instability. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4”
A
5,(a),The most appropriate answer is (a). Investment, weather conditions and agricultural transformation are the best indicators of agricultural development. Political stability plays a very small role in agricultural development.
189
Q
6,”Indian farmers are unhappy over the introduction of “Terminator Seed Technology” because the seeds produced by this technology are expected to: [1999] (a) show poor germination (b) form low-yielding plants despite the high quality (c) give rise to sexually sterile plants (d) give rise to plants incapable of forming viable seeds”
A
6,(c),The terminator gene is a specific genetic sequence inserted into a seed’s DNA. Once activated by a synthetic chemical catalyst of the manufacturer’s choosing, the sequence renders the seed and crop it produces sterile. This means that the farmer cannot retain seeds for future crops as is the practice in India. The farmer has to repurchase the seeds at a heavy cost.
190
Q
7,”The correct sequence in decreasing order of the four sugarcane producing States in India is: [2000] (a) Maharashtra, U .P., Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh (b) U. P., Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh (c) Maharashtra, U. P., Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu (d) U. P., Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu”
A
7,(b),The decreasing order of the sugarcane producing States in India is: Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.
191
Q
- Consider the following statements: [2000]
- Maharashtra has the highest acreage under Jawar in India
- Gujarat is the largest producer of groundnut in India.
- Rajasthan has the largest area of cultivable wastelands
in India - Andhra Pradesh has the highest per hectare yield of
maize in India
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
A
8,(c),Maharashtra has the highest acreage under Jawar in India. Now, Gujarat is the largest producer of Groundnut in India with a share of more than
192
Q
9,”The annual agricultural production of a product for the period 1991–92 to 1998–99 is shown in the figure given below. Which one of the following is the product in question? [2001] Year (a) Pulses (b) Wheat (c) Oilseeds (d) Rice”
A
9,(d),In the given bar diagram the annual production of “Rice” for the period 1991–92 to 1998–99 is shown.
193
Q
10,”In terms of value, which one of the following commodities accounted for the largest agricultural exports by India during the three year period from 1997–1998 to 1999–2000 ? [2002] (a) Cereals (b) Marine products (c) Spices (d) Tea”
A
10,(b),Largest agricultural exports were of marine products followed by tea and spices.
194
Q
- Consider the following statements: [2004]
- Regarding the procurement of food-grains,
Government of India follows a procurement target
rather than an open–ended procurement policy. - Government of India announces minimum support
prices only for cereals. - For distribution under Targeted Public Distribution
System (TPDS), wheat and rice are issued by the
Government of India at uniform central issue prices to
the States/Union Territories.
.
Agriculture in the
National Economy
D 30 Topicwise Solved Papers
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
A
11,(c),Regarding the procurement of food-grains, Government of India follows a procurement target rather than an open-ended procurement policy. In case, there is no procurement target. The government allows the procurement agencies like the FCI to buy whatever is offered by the farmers for sale at MSP. Minimum Support Price is announced for around 22 crops. Wheat and Rice are issued by the central Government at Uniform central issue Prices (CIPs) to states and Union Territories for distribution under TPDS. The difference between the economic cost and issue price of food grains is reimbursed to the FCI by the central Government in the form of subsidy.
195
Q
12,”Consider the following statement: [2004] India continues to be dependent on imports to meet the requirement of oilseeds in the country because: 1. farmers prefer to grow food grains with highly remunerative support prices. 2. most of the cultivation of oilseed crops continues to be dependent on rainfall. 3. oils from the seeds of free origin and rice bran have remained unexploited. 4. it far cheaper to import oilseeds than to cultivate the oilseed crops. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4”
A
12,(b),The reduction of rainfall and leak of seed preservation technology are the main cause.
196
Q
13,”Consider the following statements: [2009] 1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices recommends the Minimum Support Prices for 32 crops. 2. The Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has launched the National Food Security Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2”
A
13,(d),The National Development Council (NDC) in its 53rd meeting held on 29th May, 2007 adopted a resolution to launch a Food Security Mission consisting of rice, wheat and pulses and to increase the production of rice by 10 million tons, wheat by 8 million tons and pulses by 2 million tons by the end of the Eleventh Plan (2011–12). The project is under Ministry of Agriculture. The project identifies districts and varieties which would be concentrated on.
197
Q
14,”Consider the following statements: [2010] 1. The Union Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for each sugar season 2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2”
A
14,(c),Statutory minimum price of sugarcane for every season is a policy provision while sugar and sugarcane falls within essential commodities act.
198
Q
15,”With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct ? [2011 - I] 1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced. 2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming. 3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3”
A
15,(c),The first statement is correct because with Micro irrigation, Fertigation can be used to check the loss of the nutrients. The second statement is incorrect. The third statement is correct, because Micro irrigation has evolved from the sub-irrigation where irrigation water is supplied to the plant by “raising the water table” up to the root zone.
199
Q
16,”Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn’. What is the importance of this plant?[2012- I]
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.
2. 2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
3. 3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes. 4. Its timber is of great commercial value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4”
A
16,(c),Seabuckthorn is a medicinal plant which has health-promoting properties. It can play a crucial role in preventing soil erosion and help nitrogen fix option in cold and desert areas.
200
Q
17,”In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/ constraints in its wider/greater implementation? [2014 - I] 1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place. 2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops. 3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) None”
A
17,(b),We have a National Seed policy made in 2002. So 1 is not a constraint. The private sector produces high-priced seeds but in lower volume. It supplies nearly the entire hybrid seeds required for vegetables. So 2 is not a constraint. In the case of low value and high volume crops such as wheat and rice, farmers tend to use their own preserved seeds as there is demand and supply gap. So 3 is a constraint.
201
Q
18,”Which of the following is/are the advantage /advantages of practising drip irrigation? [2016-I] 1. Reduction in weed 2. Reduction in soil salinity 3. Reduction in soil erosion Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above is an advantage of practising drip irrigation”
A
18,(c),As per Tamilnadu Agriculture University: Advantages of drip irrigation system: Water saving and higher yield, High quality and increased fruit size, Suitable for all types of soil, Easy method of fertigation and chemigation, saving in labour, reduces weed formation and soil erosion. Whereas Disadvantage of drip irrigation system: High initial investment, Clogging of emitters, Possible damage of system components due to animals, etc. After the exam, experts were divided between A and C since both soil salinity and soil erosion are reduced depending on various books. But in its official Answer key, UPSC has kept “C” as the answer.
202
Q
19,”Why does the Government of India promote the use of Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture? [2016-I] (a) Release of Neem oil in the soil increases nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms (b) Neem coating slows down the rate of dissolution of urea in the soil (c) Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas, is not at all released into atmosphere by crop fields (d) It is a combination of a weedicide and a fertilizer for particular crops”
A
19,(b),(i) Spraying urea with Neem oil slows the release of nitrogen, by about 10 to 15 per cent, concomitantly reducing consumption of the fertiliser. Many research studies in India have conclusively established that Neem oil acts as an effective nitrification inhibitor if coated onto urea. HINTS & SOLUTIONS EBD_7335 Agriculture in the National Economy D 33 (ii) Spraying urea with neem oil slows the release of nitrogen, by about 10 to 15 per cent, concomitantly reducing consumption of the fertiliser. Hence B is the closest answer. Ref: Busienss Standard Newspaper/ New Delhi February 16, 2016; http://www.business-standard. com/article/ economy-policy/neem-coated-truth-urea-policy-isn-t-a-game-changer-116021601168_1 .html
203
Q
20,”With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana’, consider the following statements: [2016-I] 1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of two percent for any crop they cultivate in any season of the year. 2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2”
A
20,(b),(i) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana will also seek to address a long standing demand of farmers and provide farm level assessment for localised calamities including hailstorms, unseasonal rains, landslides and inundation. (ii) Post-harvest loss is included so #2 is right. But Under the new scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of two per cent for all kharif crops and 1.5 per cent for all rabi crops. For annual commercial and horticultural crops, farmers will have to pay a premium of 5 per cent. So, #1 is wrong. Therefore, answer (b) only 2. Ref: Indianexpress/ January 14, 2016; http:// indianexpress.com/article/business/business-others/ pradhan-mantri-fasal-bima-yojana-crop-insurance-plan-to-entail-rs-8-8k-cr-outgo/
204
Q
21,”Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991? [2017-I] 1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously. 2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased. 3. FDI inflows increased. 4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4”
A
21,(b),From the statistical appendix given in the economic survey 2015-16 the answer is “B”. While it’s possible that in some years, FDI and world share in exports would have declined than previous years because of global financial crisis, but by and large compared to Pre-LPG and Post-LPG, there is definitely an increase.
205
Q
22,”Consider the following statements: [2017-I] 1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. 2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2”
A
22,(a),First is correct as per BIS website.And AGMARK is issued under Indian Act. Besides, it’s an ‘extreme statement’, FAO would not bother with small things.
206
Q
23,”Which one the following group of a plant domesticated in the new world and introduced into the old world? (a) Tobacco, cocoas, and rubber [2019-I] (b) Tobacco, cotton and rubbers (c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane (d) Rubber, coffee and wheat”
A
23,(a),Encyclopedia Britannica: In the 15th and 16th centuries, during the Columbian Exchange: numerous plants, animals, and microbes from old world (Europe, Asia, and Africa) were introduced to the new world (Americas) and vice versa. From the image given in the link, it’s evident that Cocoa and Tobacco were introduced from new world to old world so only A fits.
207
Q
24,”Consider the following statements: [2019-I] 1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India. 2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board. 3. Plant Varieties are not eligible to the patented in India. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1,2, and 3”
A
24,(c),National IPR Policy 2016 shifted the Copyright Office and its statutory body Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) from HRD ministry to commerce ministry. India Patent Act: Chapter 2: Inventions not patentable: Bullet (j): plants and animals in whole or any part thereof, including seeds, varieties and species. So, #1 is wrong, #3 is right, answer is (c).
208
Q
25,”Consider the following statements: [2019-I] 1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by government entities. 2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2”
A
25,(d),Majority of the external debt is by the private sector’s external commercial borrowing (ECB). So #1 is wrong. Second statement is extreme worded hyperbole so it’s wrong. But just to crosscheck: Page 154 of 154 Economic Survey 2016-17: US dollar denominated debt accounted for 55.6 per cent of India’s total external debt at end- September 2016, followed by Indian rupee (30.1 per cent), SDR (5.8 per cent), Japanese Yen (4.8 per cent) Pound Sterling (0.7 per cent), Euro (2.4 per cent) and others (0.6 per cent).
209
Q
26,”The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation Of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus [2019-I] (a) Transportation cost only (b) Interest cost only (c) Procurement incidentals and distribution costs (d) Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns”
A
26,(c),Page 117, Economic Survey 2017-18 Volume 2. Economic Cost of foodgrains consists of three components: Pooled cost of grains, which is the weighted MSP of the stock of foodgrains available with FCI, procurement incidentals, cost of distribution. Thus answer is (c).
210
Q
27,”With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements : [2020-I] 1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government. 2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas. 3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer is a by-product of oil refineries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3”
A
27,(b),#2 is right as per NCERT Class12 Chemistry. 2019: Government replied in Rajya Sabha, “As far as market-linking of urea prices is concerned, the MRP of urea is statutorily fixed by the Government. Whereas, MRP of Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) Fertilizers the manufacturers/marketers are allowed to fix the MRP at reasonable rates as per market dynamics.” Therefore first statement is not fully correct. (REF: PIB) So #1 is wrong. Indian Bureau of mines booklet: The sulphur is obtained as a by-product from oil refineries. Most of the sulphur is converted to sulphuric acid (H2 SO4 ) which is used in the manufacture of phosphatic fertilizer. So #3 should be correct. Hence the answer is “b”.
211
Q
28,”With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following sentences: [2020-I] 1. Black gram (Urad) can be cultivated as both Kharif and rabi crop. 2. Green gram (Moong) alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production. 3. In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3”
A
28,(a),India produces a variety of pulses so it is difficult to believe that green gram alone accounts for nearly 50% of production. #2 should be wrong, And by elimination the answer should be “A”. But just to be sure let’s cross check with the data. Looking at the PIB production data of 2016, 2017 and 2018: Gram (Chanaa) and Tur production seem to be higher than Green gram (Moong), so, #2 is wrong. So, b, c and d were eliminated. Further in the same data set we can also see that There is no clear cut increase or decrease as described in the statement 3. So #3 is wrong. And, Black gram (urad) Production detail for both Rabi and kharif seasons are given so #1 is right.
212
Q
29,”In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? [2020-I] 1. Fixing Minimum Support Price for agriculture produce of all crops 2. Computerization of Primary Agriculture Credit Societies 3. Social Capital development 4. Free electricity supply of farmers 5. Waiver of agriculture loans by the banking system 6. Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 2, 3 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6”
A
29,(c),Investment is a term associated with the capital part of the budget. So “subsidy” - a revenue part is not an example of ‘public investment’. Economic Survey 2019-20 page 84 also confirms this. Free electricity to farmers involves the government paying subsidy to the electricity company. Therefore #4 is wrong. Setting up of cold storage facilities can help in preservation of the perishable agricultural commodities so #6 is valid. So, answer should be “c”.
213
Q
30,”Consider the following statements [2020-I] 1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India. 2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2”
A
30,(d),Successive Economic surveys have highlighted that Government’s open ended procurement is limited to wheat and rice. And even after PM-AASHA reforms, procurement is not done for all the cereals for which MSP is announced (e.g. Jowar, Bajra, Ragi etc). So, #1 is wrong. Market factors of Supply and demand may create a scenario where market price of cereal/pulses may rise higher than MSP. Market players are not legally bound to keep their prices lower or higher than MSP. So, #2 is wrong.
214
Q
31,”Consider the following statements : [2020-I] 1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks 2. One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither It nor 2”
A
31,(b),Compared to DCCB, scheduled commercial banks command larger quantities of deposits, more number of Bank branches, have an obligation to give 18% of their loans to agriculture under the priority sector lending (PSL). Therefore statement#1 is unpalatable and wrong. Statement#2 is correct. DCCBs give funds downwards to PACS.
215
Q
Question Number,Question,Year,Options
A
Question Number,Option,Explanation
216
Q
- Which of the following benefits are likely to accrue to India
from the World Trade Organisation? [1995] - India’s share in the world trade is to go up from the
present 600 million US dollars to 5 billion US dollars
by 2000 AD. - It will help boost exports of agricultural commodities
from India. - India’s share in the world trade is likely to triple by the
year 2000 A.D.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
A
1,(d),World Trade Organization is attempting to lower trade barriers across nations. Hence export of all member nations will go up.
217
Q
2,”Local supply of coal is not available to:”,”1996”,”(a) TISCO, Jamshedpur (b) VSL, Bhadravati (c) HSL, Durgapur (d) HSL, Bhilai”
A
2,(b),VSL Bhadravati located in Karnataka is the only iron and state plant which does not have capative coal mines and is situated outside the coal producing area. The plant switched over to electric furnaces after the completion of Mahatma Gandhi Hydel Power Station.
218
Q
3,”The number of industries for which industrial licensing is required has now been reduced to:”,”1997”,”(a) 15 (b) 6 (c) 35 (d) 20”
A
3,(b),Industrial Licensing was abolished for all except short list of 18 industries in New Industrial Policy 1991. Currently, as per 2015 data, only five industries are under compulsory licensing mainly on account of environmental, safety and strategic considerations. They are: 1. Distillation and brewing of alcoholic drinks 2. Cigars and Cigarettes of tobacco and manufactured tobacco substitutes. 3. Electronic Aerospace and defense equipment: all types 4. Industrial explosives including detonating fuses, safety fuses, gun powder, nitrocellulose and matches. 5. Specified Hazardous chemicals i.e. (i) Hydrocyanic acid and its derivatives (ii) Phosgene and its derivatives and (iii) Isocyanates & diisocyanates of hydrocarbon, not elsewhere specified (example Methyl isocyanate).
219
Q
4,”Scheme of (i) Urban Micro-Enterprises, (ii) Urban Wage Employment and (iii) Housing and Shelter Upgradation are parts of:”,”1997”,”(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme (b) Nehru Rojgar Yojana (c) Jawahar Rojgar Yojana (d) Prime Minister’s Rojgar Yojana”
A
4,(b),The Nehru Rozgar Yojana (1989) has been designed to provide employment to the urban unemployed and under-employed poor.
220
Q
5,”The contribution of India’s small scale sector to the gross turnover in the manufacturing sector since 1992 has been of the order of:”,”1997”,”(a) 40% (b) 34% (c) 30% (d) 45%”
A
5,(a),The contribution of small scale industries to employment and exports is substantial. The sector contributes over 40 per cent of the gross turnover in the manufacturing sector, 45 per cent of manufactured exports and 25 per cent of total exports. As in 2015.
221
Q
- Which of the following places are known for paper
manufacturing industry ? [1997] - Yamuna Nagar 2. Guwahati
- Shahabad 4. Ballarpur
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) I, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
A
6,(b),Yamuna Nagar, Guwahati and Ballarpur are famous for paper manufacturing industry. Yamuna Nagar is in Haryana, Guwahati is in Assam and Ballarpur is in Maharashtra.
222
Q
- Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
[1997]
List-I List-II
(Hazardous industries) (Located at)
A. Glass Industry 1. Moradabad
B. Brassware Industry 2. Marakpur
C. Slate Industry 3. Ferozabad
D. Handmade Carpet 4. Mirzapur
Industry
Codes:
(a) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4 (b) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
(c) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2 (d) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4
A
7,(a),Hazardous industries Location A. Glass Industry – Firozabad B. Brassware Industry – Moradabad C. Slate Industry – Marakpur D. Handmade Carpet – Mirzapur Industry All these industries use child labour filling of a public interest petition in the Supreme Court is pending.
223
Q
- Consider the following statements: [1998]
The price of any currency in international market is decided
by the: - World Bank
- Demand for goods/services provided by the country
concerned - Stability of the government of the concerned country
- Economic potential of the country in question of these
statements:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
A
8,(b),Export and import levels of a country and political stability are very crucial for the market price of the nations currency.
224
Q
9,”Some time back, the Government of India, decided to de-license ‘white goods’ industry. ‘White goods’ include:”,”1998”,”(a) stainless steel and aluminium utensils (b) milk and milk products (c) items purchased for conspicuous consumption (d) soaps, detergents and other mass consumption goods”
A
9,(c),White goods are large electrical goods used domestically such as air conditioners, refrigerators, cooking range etc., which had a white enamel finish. Despite their availability in varied colours now, they are still called white goods. The term is used where British English is spoken. In the year 1993 the govt. of India had decided to de-licence these goods.
225
Q
10,”The rough outline map given shows centres of cement industry labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match these centres with the following sets of names:”,”1998”,”Names: A. Katni B. Tirunelveli C. Sikka D. Churk”
A
10,(b),In the rough outline map of India show centres of cement industry : ‘1’ Sikka in Gujarat. ‘2’ Katni in Madhya Pradesh ‘3’ Churk in Uttar Pradesh ‘4’ Tirunelveli in Tamil Nadu. All the places have cement industries.
226
Q
- Consider the following statements: [1999]
Small-scale industries are, in most cases, not as efficient
and competitive as the large-scale ones. Yet the Government
provides preferential treatment and reservations in a range
of products to the small firms because small-scale industries: - provide higher employment on a per unit capital
deployment basis - promote a regional dispersion of industries and
economical activities - have performed better in export of manufactured
products than the large scale ones - provide jobs to low-skill workers, who otherwise may
not find employment avenues elsewhere
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
A
11,(b),SSI contribution to Indian exports is 35% and in the total manufacturing turnover contribute approximately 40%. Small scale, industries have a low capital output ratio and give employment to larger number of workers. As they use raw material that can be dispersed over a wider area.
227
Q
12,”From the balance sheet of a company, it is possible to:”,”1999”,”(a) judge the extent of profitability of this company (b) assess the profitability and size of the company (c) determine the size and composition of the assets and liabilities of the company (d) determine the market share, debts and assets of the company”
A
12,(c),In financial accounting, a balance sheet or statement of financial position is a summary of the financial status of an organisation which can be a sole proprietorship, a business partnership or a company. Assets, liabilities and ownership of equity are listed as on a specific date, which is normally the end of the financial year. A balance sheet is the “snapshot of a company’s financial condition”.
228
Q
13,Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given the lists: [1999],”List I List-II (Industries) (Industrial Centres)
A. Pearl fishing 1. Pune
B. Automobiles 2. Tuticorin
C. Ship building 3. Pinjore
D. Engineering goods 4. Marmagao Codes: (a) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3 (b) A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4 (c) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3 (d) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4”
A
13,(a),Industries Industrial centres A. Pearl fishing Tuticorin B. Automobile industry Pune C. Ship building Marmagao D. Engineering goods Pinjore
229
Q
14,The product life cycle from inception to demise is shown in the graph. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: [1999],”List-I (Stage) List-II A. Product Development 1 2 3 4 5 Profit Time Loss/Investment Profit/Sales Sales B. Maturity C. Growth D. Introduction Codes: (a) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-1 (b) A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2 (c) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3 (d) A-4; B-1; C-3; D-2”
A
14,(b),A. Product Development – 1 B. Maturity –4 C. Growth – 3 D. Introduction – 2 The product life cycle theory was developed by Raymond Vernon to explain the observed pattern of international trade.
230
Q
15,Consider the following statements: [1999],”Industrial development in India, to an extent, is constrained by: 1. lack of adequate entrepreneurship and leadership in business 2. lack of savings to invest 3. lack of technology, skills and infrastructure 4. limited purchasing power among the larger masses Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4”
A
15,(c),Industrial development in India is constrained by luck of savings to invest, lack of technology, skills and infrastructure and limited purchasing capacity among the larger masses.
231
Q
16,Tourism industry in India is quite small compared to many other countries in terms of India’s potential size. Which one of the following statements is correct in this regard? [1999],”(a) Distances in India are too far apart and luxury hotels are too expensive for western tourists. (b) For most of months India is too hot for western tourists to feel comfortable. (c) Most of the picturesque resorts in India such as in the North East and Kashmir are, for all practical purposes, out of bounds. (d) In India, the infrastructure required for attracting tourists is inadequate.”
A
16,(d),India due to its handicrafts, culture and monuments is a preferred destination. However, there is a lack of tourist infrastructure.
232
Q
17,Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: [1999],”List-I (Industrial Unit) List-II ( Centre)
A. Atlas Cycle Company Ltd. 1. Bangalore
B. Bharat Earth Movers Ltd. Bhubaneswar
3. C. Indian Farmers Fertilizers Co-operative Ltd. 3. Kalol D
4. . National Aluminium Company Ltd. 4. Sonepat Codes: (a) A – 1; B – 4; C – 2; D – 3 (b) A – 1; B – 4; C – 3; D – 2 (c) A – 4; B – 1; C – 2; D – 3 (d) A – 4; B – 1; C – 3; D – 2”
A
17,(d),Atlas cycle company is situated at Sonepat in Haryana. Bharat Earth Movers Limited is in Banglore, Karnataka. Indian Farmers Fertilizers Co-operative Ltd is present in Kalol in Gujarat and National Aluminium Company Limited is located at Bhubaneswar.
233
Q
18,Assertion (A) : Information technology is fast becoming a very important field of activity in India. Reason (R) : Software is one of the major exports of the country and India has a very strong base in hardware. [1999],”(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true”
A
18,(c),In India information technology is fast becoming a very important sector of activity in India. Software is not one of the major exports of the country and India has a normal base in hardware.
234
Q
19,Consider the following factors regarding an industry [2001],”1. Capital investment 2. Business turnover 3. Labour force 4. Power consumption Which of these determine the nature and size of the industry? (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3”
A
19,(b),Among various factors entrepreneurial skills, availability of finance turnover and power consumption etc. decides the nature and size of an industry.
235
Q
20,Assertion (A) : India’s software exports increased at an average growth rate of 50% since 1995-96. Reason (R) : Indian software companies were cost-effective and maintained international quality. [2001],”(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true”
A
20,(a),The only negative factor is the time difference which causes large employee turnover as most IT work is conducted during night shift.
236
Q
21,Consider the following states: [2001],”1. Gujarat 2. Karnataka 3. Maharashtra 4. Tamil Nadu The descending order of these states with reference to their level of Per Capita Net State Domestic Product is: (a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4 (c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2”
A
21,(b),The descending order of the states with reference to their level of per capita Net State Domestic Product - Maharashtra ® Gujarat ® Karnataka ® Tamil Nadu
237
Q
22,With reference to the Public Sector Undertakings in India, consider the following statements: [2002],”
1. Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation of India Limited is the largest non-oil importer of the country
2. 2. Project and Equipment Corporation of India Limited is under the Ministry of Industry
3. 3. One of the objectives of Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Limited is to enforce quality control and compulsory pre-shipment inspection of various exportable commodities Which of these statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only”
A
22,(a),Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation Limited (MMTC) is one of the two biggest foreign exchange earner for India. It is the largest international trading company of India and the first Public Sector Enterprise to be accorded the status of FIVE STAR EXPORT HOUSE by Govt. of India for long standing contribution to exports. MMTC is the largest non-oil importer in India. Project and Equipment Corporation of India Limited is under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
238
Q
23,HINDALCO, an aluminium factory located at Renukut owes its site basically to : [2002],”(a) proximity of raw materials (b) abundant supply of power (c) efficient transport network (d) proximity to the market”
A
23,(b),HINDALCO, an aluminium factory located at Renukut due to abundant supply of power from National Thermal Power Station, Rihand and a capative power plant at Renu Sagar. It has a cogeneration unit at the plant itself.
239
Q
24,Which one of the following committees recommended the abolition of reservation of items for the small scale sector in industry? [2003],”(a) Abid Hussian Committee (b) Narasimham Committee (c) Nayak Committee (d) Rakesh Mohan Committee”
A
24,(a),Abid Hussain Committee (1997) recommended total de-reservation and desired replacing policy of reservation with a policy of promotion and strengthening of small scale units.
240
Q
25,With reference to India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct? [2003],”(a) IPCL is India’s largest petrochemical company (b) RIL is the largest private sector company in India (c) MTNL is listed on NYSE (d) BSNL is the first telecom service organization in India to launch a nationwide cellular service at one time”
A
25,(a),ONGC is India’s largest petrochemical company. IPCL is the second largest petrochemical company. It produces around 69% of India’s crude oil and around 62% of its natural gas.
241
Q
26,Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? [2003],”(a) India is the second largest producer of nitrogenous fertilizers in the world. (b) India is the ninth largest steel producing country in the world. (c) India is the second largest producer of silk in the world. (d) India ranks third in the world in coal production.”
A
26,(a),India is the second largest producer of nitrogenous fertilizers in the world. India is the third largest steel producing country in the the world. India is the second largest producer of silk in the world after china. India is the second largest producer of coal in the world after china.
242
Q
27,During the year 2000-01 which one of the following Industries recorded the highest growth rate in India? [2003],”(a) Cement (b) Coal (c) Electricity (d) Steel”
A
27,(d),The steel industry recorded highest growth rate of 7%, electricity, generation growth rate was 4%, coal industry growth was 3.3%.
243
Q
28,Which one of the following statements is correct? [2003],”(a) Alliance Air is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Indian Airlines (b) The Airports Authority of India manages seven of the country’s international airports (c) The Airports Authority of India is the regulatory organisation for enforcing civil air regulations in India (d) It is the function of Directorate General of Civil Aviation to plan and construct runways and terminal buildings and to provide air safety services”
A
28,(a),Alliance Air was formed in 1996 and was complelety owned by Indian Airline.
244
Q
29,Assertion (A) : India does not export natural rubber. Reason (R) : About 97% of India’s demand for natural rubber is met from domestic production. [2004],”(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true”
A
29,(b),India is the fourth largest country, regarding consumption of rubber with total consumption 631000 tons in 2001, after USA and Japan. Due to high consumption in domestic market India does not export natural rubber. However small quantities of natural rubber is exported to get higher prices.
245
Q
30,Assertion (A): Balance of Payments represents a better Picture of a country economic transactions with the rest of the world than the Balance of Trade Reason (R): Balance of Payments takes into account the exchange of both visible and invisible items whereas balance of Trade does not. [2006],”(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’, are individually true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’. (b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are individually true but ‘R’ is not the, correct explanation of ‘A’ . (c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false. (d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.”
A
30,(a),Balance of payments of a nation consists of visible account, invisible account and capital account. Whereas balance of trade = Export of goods – import of goods. If a country imports are more than exports the deficit can be made up by invisibles like remmitance by NRI and FDI investment.
246
Q
31,Which one of the following statements is not correct? [2005],”(a) Rourkela Steel Plant, the first integrated steel plant in the Public Sector of India was set up with the Soviet Union collaboration. (b) Salem Steel Plant is a premier producer of stainless steel in India. (c) Maharashtra Elektrosmelt Ltd. is a subsidiary of the Steel Authority of India Ltd. (d) Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is a unit of the Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd.”
A
31,(a),Rourkela Steel Plant (RSP) is the first intergrated steel plant in the public sector in India. It was set up with German collaboration with an installed capacity of 1 million tonnes.
247
Q
32,Consider the following statements: [2009],”1. MMTC Limited is India’s largest international trading organization. 2. Neelachal Ispat Nigam Limited has been set up by MMTC jointly with the Government of Orissa. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2”
A
32,(c),Neelachal Ispat Nigam Limited (NINL), a company promoted by MMTC Ltd, Industrial Promotion and Investment Corporation of Orissa Limited (IPICOL) and other government agencies has set up an 1.1 million ton Integrated Iron and steel plant at Kalinganagar, Duburi, Orissa.
248
Q
33,Which one of the following sets of commodities are exported to India by arid and semi-arid countries in the Middle East? [2009],”(a) Raw wool and carpets (b) Fruits and palm oil (c) Precious stones and pearls (d) Perfume and Coffee.”
A
33,(b),Fruits and palm oil are exported to India by arid and semi arid countries of middle east.
249
Q
34,Which one of the following is not a feature of Limited Liability Partnership firm? [2010],”(a) Partners should be less than 20 (b) Partnership and management need not be separate (c) Internal governance may be decided by mutual agreement among partners (d) It is corporate body with perpetual succession”
A
34,(a),A limited liability partnership (LLP) is a partnership in which some or all partners (depending on the jurisdiction) have limited liability. LLP shall be a body corporate and a legal entity separate from its partners. It will have perpetual succession. Indian Partnership Act, 1932 shall not be applicable to LLPs and there shall not be any upper limit on number of partners in an LLP unlike an ordinary partnership firm where the maximum number of partners can not exceed 20, LLP Act makes a mandatory statement where one of the partner to the LLP should be an Indian.
250
Q
35,In India, which of the following, is regulated by the Forward Markets Commission? [2010],”(a) Currency Futures Trading (b) Commodities Futures Trading (c) Equity Futures Trading (d) Both Commodities Futures and Financial Futures Trading”
A
35,(b),Forward Markets Commission (FMC) is the chief regulator of forwards and futures markets in India. As of March 2009, it regulates Rs 52 Trillion worth of commodity trade in India. It is headquartered in Mumbai and is overseen by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Government of India. The commission allows commodity trading in 22 exchanges India of which 6 are national. It was established in 1953.
251
Q
36,What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector? [2012 - I],”1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones 2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3”
A
36,(c),All the three initiative (s) mentioned in the question are the part of National Manufacturing Policy. The objective of the National Manufacturing policy is to boost the country’s share of industrial production, employment, development of world-class infrastructure and investments in India’s manufacturing space.
252
Q
37,In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries? [2012 - I],”1. Cement 2. Fertilizers 3. Natural gas 4. Refinery products 5. Textiles Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 5 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5”
A
37,(c),The Eight core industries have a combined weight of 37.90 per cent in the index of Industrial Production (IIP). They are as follows: Coal, crude oil, Natural Gas, Petroleum Refinery Products, fertilizers, steel (Alloy + Non - Alloy), Cement and Electricity.
253
Q
38,Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal? [2012 - I],”1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use. 2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country. 3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3”
A
38,(b),2nd and 3rd are correct statements.
254
Q
39,The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of [2013 - I],”
(a) all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year
(b) good exported from a country during a year
(c) economic transaction between the government of one country to another
(d) capital movements from one country to another.”
A
The correct option is A
all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time normally a year
The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time normally a year
255
Q
40,Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India? [2013 - I],”(a) Engineering (b) Paper and pulp (c) Textiles (d) Thermal power”
A
40,(d),Thermal power plants use water to turn into steam (heat energy) to generate electricity (electrical energy).
256
Q
41,Disguised unemployment generally means [2013 - I],”(a) large number of people remain unemployed (b) alternative employment is not available (c) marginal productivity of labour is zero (d) productivity of workers is low”
A
41,(c),Disguised unemployment is a situation when people do not have productive full-time employment, but are not counted in the official unemployment statistics.
257
Q
42,With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account? [2014 - I],”1. Balance of trade 2. Foreign assets 3. Balance of invisibles 4. Special Drawing Rights Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4”
A
42,(c),The current account consists of the balance of trade and balance of invisibles.
258
Q
43,In India, the steel production industry requires the import of [2015-I],”(a) saltpetre (b) rock phosphate (c) coking coal (d) All of the above”
A
43,(c),The coal found in India is mainly of non-coking quality and hence coking coal has to be imported. 70% of the steel produced today uses coal. Coking coal is a vital ingredient in the steel making process.
259
Q
44,In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight? [2015-I],”(a) Coal production (b) Electricity generation (c) Fertilizer production (d) Steel production”
A
44,(b),Electricity generation (weight: 10.32%) increased by 3.5% in July, 2015. Its cumulative index during April to July, 2015-16 increased by 2.0 % over the corresponding period of previous year.
260
Q
45,Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers’? [2015-I],”(a) The Reserve Bank of India (b) The Department of Economic Affairs (c) The Labour Bureau (d) The Department of Personnel and Training”
A
45,(c),The labour Bureau brings out “consumer price index numbers” for industrial workers.
261
Q
46,Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in [2016-I],”(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat (c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh”
A
46,(a),In order to boost ‘Make in India’ campaign, first national investment and manufacturing zone to come up in Andhra Pradesh. The state assured the Centre of availability of 10 sq km of land in one place in Prakasham district.
262
Q
47,With reference to pre-packaged items in India, it is mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011? [2016-I],”
1. List of ingredients including additives
2. 2. Nutrition information
3. 3. Recommendations, if any, made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions
4. 4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only”
A
47,(c),(i) Items 1, 2 and 4 are the mandatory information to the manufacturer to put these on the main label as per FSS(packaging & labeling) regulations 2011. (ii) According to official notification Ref:http://www.fssai.gov.in/Portals/0/Pdf/Food%20Safety%20and%20standards%20(Packaging%20and%20Labelling)%20regulation,%202011. pdf. Labels have to contains 1, 2 and 4 that much is confirmed. And since UPSC has not given any option on “All correct”. Hence answer (c).
263
Q
48,With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements: [2017-I],”1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry. 2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2”
A
48,(c),Both statements are correct, as per their organization’s about us page.
264
Q
49,India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to [2018-I],”(a) ILO (b) IMF (c) UNCTAD (d) WTO”
A
49,(d),GI indicators fall under WTO domain so D is the answer.
265
Q
50,Consider the following countries : [2018-I],”1. Australia 2. Canada 3. China 4. India 5. Japan 6. USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN ? (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 3, 4, 5 and 6 (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 6”
A
50,(c),1,3,4 and 5 Mrunal’s Lecture BoP#3: at 24th minute · RCEP about ASEAN plus its free trade partners which includes: China, India, Japan, Korea, Australia and NewZealan(d) · Canada (#2) and USA (#6) is definitely not there, so A, B and D are remove(d) Thus by elimination, we are left with answer (C)
266
Q
51,Consider the following statements [2018-I],”1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years. 2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils a special case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2”
A
51,(a),First statement is right as per ICAR report. If we look at the budget documents of last three year, Government does impose custom duty on imported edible oils, so, #2 is a hyperbole wrong statement.
267
Q
52,Consider the following statements: [2019-I],”1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi. 2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis. 3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now india is self-sufficient in coal production. Which one of the following statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3”
A
52,(a),”• 1973: Coal Mines Nationalization Act- Coal India and other CPSEs took over private coal mining companies. They will dig coal, sell it to thermal power plants & other industries. (Indira Gandhi was PM at that time.) So, #1 is right. Answer could be A or D. • 2015: Coal Mines Special Provision Act: It opens up commercial coal mining for both private and public entities, and thus ends the monopoly of Coal India. Presently, coal blocks are allotted on the basis of auction. #2 is wrong. Thus Answer A: 1 only.”
268
Q
53,With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristics ? [2020-I],”(a) It is the investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company. (b) It is largely non-debt creating capital flow. (c) It is the investment which involves debt-servicing. (d) It is the investment made by foreign institutional investors in the Government securities.”
A
53,(b),”• FDI is more than 10% equity investment by a foreign entity into an Indian company. • That means debt / borrowing / loans are not the words we associate with FDI and therefore option c and d are wrong. • Walmart has invested billions of dollars worth FDI into Flipkart which is still an unlisted company (Unlisted company means its shares are not listed in stock exchange such as BSE NSE.)Therefore, A, is also wrong. So, Answer should be b.”
269
Q
54,With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct? [2020-I],”1. India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports. 2. India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years. 3. India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services. 4. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only”
A
54,(d),”• Continuously, we are suffering from current account deficits so for statement#4 is correct. Option a and c are eliminated since they don’t contain #4. • Further India’s Merchandise/ goods export is less than its goods imports. So, #1 is correct. Hence the answer should be d. • For further datasets, you may refer to Economic Survey 2019-20 Volume 2: page 104.”
270
Q
55,With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? [2020-I],”1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. 2. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. 3. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3”
A
55,(c),”As per the official page of WTO: The Agreement is not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. So, #3 is right. The coverage of the Agreement is defined in Article 1, which states that the Agreement applies to investment measures related to trade in goods only. Meaning, the TRIMs Agreement does not apply to services. So, #2 is wrong. So, Answer should be c.”
271
Q
Question Number,Question,Options,Year
A
Question,Option,Note
272
Q
1,Which one of the following is not an instrument of selective credit control in India?,”(a) Regulation of consumer credit (b) Rationing of credit (c) Margin requirements (d) Variable cash reserve ratios”,1995
A
1,d,Variable Reserve Ratio (Cash Reserve Ratio) is aimed to control only volume of credit (quantitative method) not both volume and purpose of credit for which bank gives loans. (Qualitative method and selective control method are used for these purposes. It has a number of limitations.
273
Q
2,Bank Rate implies the rate of interest:,”(a) paid by the Reserve Bank of India on the Deposits of Commercial Banks (b) charged by Banks on loans and advances (c) payable on Bonds (d) at which the Reserve Bank of India discounts the Bills of Exchange”,1995
A
2,d,Bank Rate is that rate of interest at which central bank of a country provides refinancing facilities to commercial banks. The bank rate, a benchmark rate at which RBI buys or re-discounts bills of exchange or other commercial papers eligible for purchase. Every bank needs refinancing as it is very difficult to match borrowings and flow of deposits.
274
Q
- Consider the following: [1995]
- Industrial Finance Corporation of India
- Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
- Industrial Development Bank of India
- Unit Trust of India
The correct sequence in which the above were established is:
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 1, 4, 3, 2
A
3,a,IFCI – July 1948; ICICI – 1955; IDBI – July 1964; UTI – 1963
275
Q
4,As part of the liberalisation programme and with a view to attract foreign exchange, the government and the RBI have devised two scheme known as FCNR ‘A’ and FCNR ‘B’. Which of the following is/are true regarding these two schemes?,”1. Under scheme ‘A’ RBI bears exchange rate fluctuations. 2. Under scheme ‘B’ other banks are to meet out the difference in exchange rate fluctuations. 3. Both the schemes stand withdrawn now. 4. Only scheme ‘A’ has been withdrawn”,1995
A
4,d,Under the FCNR (A) Scheme, the RBI bore any exchange rate risk, while in the case of FCNR (B) Scheme banks have to bear the exchange rate risk. The FCNR (A) Scheme was replaced by the FCNR (B) Scheme in 1994.
276
Q
5,Hawala transactions relate to payments:,”(a) received in rupees against overseas currencies and vice versa without going through the official channels (b) received for sale/transfer of shares without going through the established stock exchanges (c) received as commission for services rendered to overseas investors/buyers/sellers in assisting them to get over the red tape and/or in getting preferential treatment (d) made to political parties or to individuals for meeting election expenses”,1996
A
5,a,Hawala is an illegal method of remittance across countries. There are money brokers who are the middle men who undertake hawala transfer. This method of remittance does not involve physical movement of cash. It is also known as Hundi. The word Hawala means trust. The Hawala system works as it is based on mutual trust between the hawala agents. It works outside the banking system and legal financial systems. The remittance happen based on communication between the hawala agents. It is an alternate to traditional remittance system.
277
Q
- The sum of which of the following constitutes Broad Money
in India? [1997] - Currency with the public
- Demand deposits with banks
- Time deposits with banks
- Other deposits with RBI
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
A
6,c,Narrow money is the most liquid part of the money supply because the demand deposits can be withdrawn anytime during the banking hours. Time deposits on the other hand have a fixed maturity period and hence cannot be withdrawn before expiry of this period. When we add the time despots into the narrow money, we get the broad money, which is denoted by M3. M3 = Narrow money + Time Deposits of public with banks. We note here that the Broad money does not include the interbank deposits such as deposits of banks with RBI or other banks. At the same time, time deposits of public with all banks including the cooperative banks are included in the Broad Money.
Currency with the Public
Current Deposits with the Banking System
Savings Deposits with the Banking System
Certificates of Deposits issued by Banks
Term Deposits of residents with a contractual maturity up to and including one year with the Banking System
‘Other’ Deposits with RBI
Term Deposits of residents with a contractual maturity of over one year with the Banking System
Call/Term borrowings from ‘Non-depository’ financial corporations by the Banking System.
278
Q
7,The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their cash in hand and total assets. This is called:,”(a) SBR (Statutory Bank Ratio) (b) SLR (Statutory Liquid Ratio) (c) CBR (Central Liquid Reserve) (d) CLR (Central Liquid Reserve)”,1998
A
7,b,SLR or the Statutory Liquidity Ratio is that portion of total deposits which a commercial bank has to maintain with itself at any given point of time in the form of liquid assets like cash in hand, current balances with other banks and first class securities which can be turned into cash (gold, cash or other approve securities). This ratio at present is 25%. Some assets have to be in liquid form to take care of financial emergencies which every bank has to face. It regulates the credit growth in India.
279
Q
8,The accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India is:,”(a) April-March (b) July-June (c) October-September (d) January-December”,1998
A
8,b,The central bank’s accounting year runs from July 1 to June 30. On 11 Mar, 1940, RBI Accounting Year changed from Jan-Dec to July-June.
nowaprl to march
280
Q
9,Which one of the following is the correct sequence of decreasing order of the given currencies in terms of their value in Indian Rupees?,”(a) US dollar, Canadian dollar, New Zealand dollar, Hong Kong dollar (b) US dollar, New Zealand dollar, Canadian dollar, Hong Kong dollar (c) US dollar, Hong Kong dollar, Canadian dollar, New Zealand dollar (d) Hong Kong dollar, US dollar, New Zealand dollar, Canadian Dollar.”,1998
A
9,a,
281
Q
10,The farmers are provided credit from a number of sources for their short and long term needs. The main sources of credit to the farmers include:,”(a) the Primary Agricultural Cooperative Societies, commercial banks, RRBs and private money lenders (b) the NABARD, RBI, commercial banks and private money lenders (c) the District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCB), the lead banks, IRDP and JRY (d) the Large Scale Multi-purpose Adivasis Programme, DCCB, IFFCO and commercial banks”,1999
A
10,a,Regional rural banks were established under RRB Act 1976. They provide credit to agriculture and other rural activities. As of March 2014, the number of RRBs has been reduced to 57.
282
Q
11,Since 1980, the share of the tertiary sector in the total GDP of India has:,”(a) shown an increasing trend (b) shown a decreasing trend (c) remained constant (d) been fluctuating”,1999
A
11,a,The share of the tertiary sector in the total GDP or Gross Domestic Product of India is increasing which is a sign of economic development. This reproduces the trend shown by western countries as they were developing.
283
Q
- Consider the following statements regarding Reserve Bank
of India: [2001] - It is a banker to the Central Government
- It formulates and administers monetary policy
- It acts as an agent of the Government in respect of
India - It handles the borrowing programme of Government
of India
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
A
12,c,Functions of RBI: sole authority to issue currency; government’s bank; banker’s bank; guardian of money market; lender of the last resort; sole reservoir of Foreign exchange reserves; controller of credit; clearing house for settling inter bank transactions. It follows an independent monetary policy.
284
Q
- Consider the following: [2002]
- Currency with the public
- Demand deposits with banks
- Time deposits with banks
Which of these are included in Broad Money (M3
) in India ?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
13,d,Narrow money is the most liquid part of the money supply because the demand deposits can be withdrawn anytime during the banking hours. Time deposits on the other hand have a fixed maturity period and hence cannot be withdrawn before expiry of this period. When we add the time deposits into the narrow money, we get the broad money, which is denoted by M3. M3 = Narrow money + Time Deposits of public with banks. We note here that the Broad money does not include the interbank deposits such as deposits of banks with RBI or other banks. At the same time, time deposits of public with all banks including the cooperative banks are included in the Broad Money.
285
Q
- Consider the following financial institutions of India:
[2002] - Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
- Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
(ICICI) - Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)
- National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(NABARD)
The correct chronological sequence of the establishment
of these institution is :
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
A
14,a,IFCI – 1948; ICICI – 1955; IDBI – 1964; NABARD - 1982
286
Q
15,Debenture holders of a company are its:,”(a) shareholders (b) creditors (c) debtors (d) directors”,2003
A
15,b,Debenture is a long-term bond issued by a company in return for a loan which have a fixed rate of interest.
287
Q
16,In the last one decade, which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest Foreign Direct Investment inflows into India?,”(a) Chemicals other than fertilizers (b) Services sector (c) Food processing (d) Telecommunication”,2004
A
16,b,Service sector received 21% of total FDI flow between 2006 to 2010.
288
Q
- Consider the following statements: [2004]
- The National Housing Bank the apex institution of
housing finance in India, was set up as a wholly-owned
subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India - The Small Industries Development Bank of India was
established as a whollyowned subsidiary of the
Industrial Development Bank of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
17,c,The National Housing Bank (NHB) is a state owned bank and regulation authority in India, created on July 8, 1988 under section 6 of the National Housing Bank Act (1987). The headquarters is in New Delhi. The institution, owned by the Reserve Bank of India, was established to promote private real estate acquisition. NHB is regulating and re-financing social housing programs and other activities like research and IT-initiatives, too. Small Industries Development Bank of India is an independent financial institution for the growth and development of micro, small and medium scale enterprises in India. Set up in 2 April, 1990 through an Act of Parliament, it was incorporated initially as a wholly owned subsidiary of Industrial Development Bank of India.
289
Q
- Consider the following statements: [2004]
- Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on 26 January,
1950 - The borrowing programme of the Government of India
is handled by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry
of Finance
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
18,d,RBI was established in 1935 and was nationalized on 1 January, 1949. RBI handles the borrowing programme of the central and State Governments.
290
Q
- Consider the following statements: [2005]
- Sensex is based on 50 of the most important stocks
available on the Bombay stock Exchange (BSE). - For calculating the Sensex, all the stock are assigned
proportional weightage. - New York Stock Exchange is the oldest stock exchange
in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) none
A
19,a,The ‘BSE SENSEX’ is a value-weighted index composed of 30 stocks and was started in 1 January, 1986. The origin of the NYSE can be traced to 17 May, 1792. Amsterdam stock exchange (1602) is considered oldest in the world and was established by the Dutch East India company.
291
Q
20,Which one of the following Indian banks is not a nationalized bank?,”(a) Corporation Bank (b) Dena Bank (c) Federal Bank (d) Vijaya Bank”,2006
A
20,c,Federal Bank is a major Indian commercial bank in the private sector, headquartered at Kochi, Kerala.
292
Q
- Consider the following statements: [2006]
- Life Insurance Corporation of India is the oldest
insurance company in India. - National Insurance Company Limited was nationalized
in the year 1972 and made a subsidiary of General
Insurance Corporation of India. - Headquarters of United Indian Insurance Company
Limited are located at Chennai.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
A
21,c,The oldest existing insurance company in India is the National Insurance Company, which was founded in 1906, and is still in business.
293
Q
- Consider the following statements: [2007]
- The repo rate is the rate at which other banks borrow
from the Reserve Bank of India. - A value of 1 for Gini Coefficient in a country implies
that there is perfectly equal income for everyone in its
population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
22,a,Repo Rate is the rate at which commercial banks borrow funds from RBI. A reduction in the repo rate will help banks to get money from the central bank at a cheaper rate. When the repo rate increases borrowing from RBI becomes more expensive.
294
Q
23,The National Housing Bank was set up in India as a wholly-owned subsidiary of which one of the following?,”(a) State Bank of India (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) ICICI Bank (d) Life Insurance Corporation of India”,2007
A
23,b,National Housing Bank has been set up under the National Housing Bank Act of 1987, which was passed on 9th July, 1988. It is wholly owned by the Reserve bank of India and was created to encourage housing, finance institutions and provide them with financial support.
295
Q
24,Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?,”(a) Japan : Nikkei (b) Singapore : Shcomp (c) UK : FTSE (d) USA : Nasdaq”,2009
A
24,b,Shangai – Shcomp; Singapore – SIMEX, Straits Time. Shcomp is a composite index of Shanghai Stock exchange. SIMEX and Strait Times are indicators for Singapore.
296
Q
25,Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for providing credit to the government?,”(a) Cash Credit Ratio (b) Debt Service Obligation (c) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (d) Statutory Liquidity Ratio”,2010
A
25,d,Commercial banks provide long-term credit to government by investing their funds in government securities and short-term finance by purchasing Treasury Bills. This comes under Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
297
Q
- With reference to the Non-banking Financial Companies
(NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements:
[2010] - They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities
issued by the government. - They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings
Account
Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
26,b,A non-banking financial company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 and is engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stock/bonds/debentures/securities issued by government or local authority or other securities of like marketable nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business, but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, sale/purchase/construction of immovable property. They cannot accept demand deposits like commercial banks as they are not a part of clearance and settlement system.
298
Q
27,In the parlance of financial investments, the term ‘bear’ denotes,”(a) An investor who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall (b) An investor who expects the price of particular shares to rise (c) A shareholder or a bondholder who, has an interest in a company, financial or otherwise (d) Any lender whether by making a loan or buying a bond”,2010
A
27,a,Bear is a speculator who sells shares in anticipation of fall operator prices to buy them back and thus make a profit.
299
Q
28,In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all the nationalized commercial banks is fixed by,”(a) Union Ministry of Finance (b) Union Finance Commission (c) Indian Banks’ Association (d) None of the above.”,2010
A
28,d,It is fixed by Reserve Bank of India. In 2011, RBI permitted the commercial banks to fix interest rate on saving account independently.
300
Q
29,With reference to the institution of Banking Ombudsman in India, which one of the statements is not correct?,”
(a) The Banking Ombudsman is appointed by the Reserve Bank of India.
(b) The Banking Ombudsman can consider complaints from Non Resident Indians having accounts in India.
(c) The orders passed by the Banking Ombudsman are final and binding on the parties concerned.
(d) The service provided by the Banking Ombudsman is free of any fee.”,2010
A
29,c,”The Banking Ombudsman Scheme
301
Q
- With reference to India, consider the following: [2010]
- Nationalization of Banks
- Formation of Regional Rural Banks
- Adoption of villages by Bank Branches
Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to
achieve the “financial inclusion” in India?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
30,d,”Financial inclusion is the delivery of financial services at affordable costs to vast sections of disadvantaged and low-income groups. Banking services are in the nature of public good. It is essential that availability of banking and payment services be available to the entire population without discrimination.”
302
Q
- Consider the following statements: [2010]
The functions of commercial banks in India include - Purchase and sale of shares and securities on behalf
of customers - Acting as executors and trustees of wills
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
31,c,”Miscellaneous functions of commercial banks in India include: Transfer and collection of funds, purchase and sale of shares on behalf of customers, acting as executors and transfers of wills, purchase and sale of foreign exchange, etc.”
303
Q
32,The International Development Association, a lending agency, is administered by the,”
(a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(b) International Fund for Agricultural Development
(c) United Nations Development Programme.
(d) United Nations Industrial Development Organization”,2010
A
32,a,”International Development Association (IDA) is that part of the World Bank that helps the world’s poorest countries. It complements the World Bank’s other lending arm—the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) which serves middle-income countries with capital investment and advisory services. IDA was created in 1960.”
304
Q
33,The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that,”(a) big banks should try to open offices in each district (b) there should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks (c) individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development (d) all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits”,2012
A
33,c,”The basic aim of the Lead Bank scheme is that the bank should adopt particular districts for intensive development by offering loans and banking services.”
305
Q
- The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks
in matters of [2013 - I] - liquidity of assets 2. branch expansion
- merger of banks 4. winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A
34,d,”The Reserve Bank of India is the main monetary authority of the country and, beside that, in its capacity as the central bank, acts as the bank of the national and state governments.”
306
Q
35,An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the,”(a) market rate of interest is likely to fall (b) Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks (c) Central Bank is following an easy money policy (d) Central Bank is following a tight money policy”,2013
A
35,d,”A tight monetary policy is a course of action undertaken by the Central bank to constrict spending in an economy, or to curb inflation when it is rising too fast. The increased bank rate increases the cost of borrowing and effectively reduces its attractiveness.”
307
Q
- Which of the following grants / grant direct credit assistance
to rural households? [2013 - I] - Regional Rural Banks
- National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
- Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
36,c,”Land development bank started financing long-term loans for more significant rural development activities like rural and cottage industries, rural artisans, etc. The main purpose of RRB’s is to mobilize financial resources from rural/semi-urban areas and grant loans and advances mostly to small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, and rural artisans. NABARD does not give ‘direct’ credit assistance. It provides credit via intermediaries such as Microfinance companies, Cooperative society, RRB.”
308
Q
- Consider the following statements: [2013 - I]
- Inflation benefits the debtors.
- Inflation benefits the bondholders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
37,a,”Those who benefit from higher inflation are debtors and those who suffer from it are creditors. If one has substantial debt, each rupee one has to repay would be worth less than when it was borrowed. In this way, one pays back less in real terms.”
309
Q
- Consider the following liquid assets: [2013 - I]
- Demand deposits with the banks
- Time deposits with the banks
- Saving deposits with the banks
- Currency
The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing
order of liquidity is
(a) 1-4-3-2 (b) 4-3-2-1 (c) 2-3-1-4 (d) 4-1-3-2
A
38,d,”Currency/cash is the most liquid, then the demand deposits (current accounts), then the saving deposits with the bank and finally the least liquid is the time deposits with the bank (fixed deposits).”
310
Q
- What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get
from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi)
in branchless areas? [2014 - I] - It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and
social security benefits in their villages. - It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make
deposits and withdrawals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
39,c,”Besides giving access to banking, it also enables government subsidies and social security benefits to be directly credited to the accounts of the beneficiaries, enabling them to draw the money from the bank saathi or business correspondents in their village itself.”
311
Q
- In the context of Indian economy, which of the following is/
are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve
Requirements’? [2014 - I] - To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of
advances the banks can create - To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid
- To prevent the commercial banks from making
excessive profits - To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to
meet their day-to-day requirements
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A
40,a,”1 is definitely correct as CRR. SLR is used to control money supply and credit off-take. 2 may or may not be correct, to make people’s deposits safe, capital adequacy ratio is the norm. 3 is definitely wrong as to control excess profit, margins would have to be reduced, not CRR, SLR.”
312
Q
41,’Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’, often seen in the news, seeks to,”(a) develop national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity (b) improve banking sector’s ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management (c) reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but places a heavier burden on developed countries (d) transfer technology from developed Countries to poor countries to enable them to replace the use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration with harmless chemicals”,2015
A
41,b,”Basel III is a comprehensive set of reform measures which was developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision and to strengthen the regulation, supervision, and risk management of the banking sector. These measures aim to: Improve the banking sector’s ability to absorb shocks arising from financial and economic stress, whatever the source; improve risk management and governance; strengthen banks’ transparency and disclosures.”
313
Q
- With reference to Indian economy, consider the following
[2015-I] - Bank rate 2. Open market operations
- Public debt 4. Public revenue
Which of the above is/are component/ components of
Monetary Policy?
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4
A
42,c,”The RBI implements the monetary policy through open market operations, bank rate policy, reserve system, credit control policy, moral persuasion, and through many other instruments.”
314
Q
43,When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, which of the following is likely to happen?,”(a) India’s GDP growth rate increases drastically (b) Foreign Institutional Investors may bring more capital into our country (c) Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates (d) It may drastically reduce the liquidity to the banking system”,2015
A
43,c,”When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points; the Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates.”
315
Q
- What is/are the purpose/purposes of the ‘Marginal Cost of
Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’ announced by RBI?
[2016-I] - These guidelines help improve the transparency in
the methodology followed by banks for determining
the interest rates on advances. - These guidelines help ensure availability of bank
credit at interest rates which are fair to the borrowers
as well as the banks.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
44,c,”(i) With effect from 1st April 2016, all loans in India shall be priced with reference to Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rates (MCLR) which will comprise of: 1. Marginal Cost of Funds 2. Negative carry on account of CRR 3. Operating Costs 4. Tenor of premium. Banks shall review and publish their MCLR every month on a pre-announced date. Marginal Cost of Funds which will comprise of the marginal cost of borrowings and return on net-worth. (ii) Both right. Verbatim lifted from RBI’s press statement first paragraph. Ref: https://rbi.org.in/SCRIPTs/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspxs?prid=35749”
316
Q
- The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in
India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following
statements is/are correct in this context? [2016-I] - Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains
that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible
to be promoters of Payment Banks. - Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit
cards. - Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
45,b,”(i) They can enable transfers and remittance through mobile phones. The RBI guidelines say that the payments bank cannot undertake lending activities. (ii) Mobile phone companies and supermarket eligible. But, Payment banks can’t issue credit cards or give loans. Go by eliminating all options with ‘2’, and you’re left with (b) 1 and 3 only.”
317
Q
- The term ‘Core Banking Solutions’ is sometimes seen in the
news. Which of the following statements best describes/
describe this term? [2016-I] - It is a networking of a bank’s branches which enables
customers to operate their accounts from any branch
of the bank on its network regardless of where they
open their accounts. - It is an effort to increase RBI’s control over
commercial banks through computerization. - It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with huge
non-performing assets is taken over by another bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
46,a,”(i) Core Banking Solution (CBS) is networking of branches, which enables Customers to operate their accounts, and avail banking services from any branch of the Bank on CBS network, regardless of where he maintains his account. The customer is no more the customer of a Branch. He becomes the Bank’s Customer. Thus CBS is a step towards enhancing customer convenience through Anywhere and Anytime Banking. (ii) 3 is definitely not the purpose, so by elimination, the answer is (a).”
318
Q
- With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the news,
which of the following statements is/are correct? [2016-I] - Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the
countries. - Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive
Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address. - Online payments can be sent without either side
knowing the identity of the other.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A
47,b,”(i) Bitcoin is not maintained by the Central Bank. Bitcoins are created as a reward for payment processing work in which users offer their computing power to verify and record payments into a public ledger. (ii) They’re not tracked by any central bank or authority. Both 2 and 3 are right.”
319
Q
48,The term ‘Base Erosion and Profit Shifting’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of,”(a) mining operation by multinational companies in resource-rich but backward areas (b) curbing of the tax evasion by multinational companies (c) exploitation of genetic resources of a country by multinational companies (d) lack of consideration of environmental costs in the planning and implementation of developmental projects”,2016
A
48,b,”(i) Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) is a tax avoidance strategy used by multinational companies, wherein profits are shifted from jurisdictions that have high taxes (such as the United States and many Western European countries) to jurisdictions that have low (or no) taxes (so-called tax havens). The BEPS project is said to be an ‘attempt by the world’s major economies to try to rewrite the rules on corporate taxation to address the widespread perception that the [corporations] don’t pay their fair share of taxes’. (ii) BEPS aims to curb the tax evasion by MNCs, hence B is the answer.”